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VCE Units 3&4 End-of-Year Examination 2026 Edition - Pack 0 v1.0
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VCE Psychology Units 3&4

49 questions

120 marks

Estimated duration: Reading time 15 minutes; writing time 2 hours 30 minutes

Reading: 15 minutes · Writing: 2 hours 30 minutes

Read VCE Psychology Units 3&4 online

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Skill Align VCE Psychology Units 3&4 Practice Examination - 2026 Edition, Pack 0

A complete original free online examination aligned to the current VCE Psychology Study Design and examination specifications.

Paper
Question and Answer Book
Reading
15 minutes
Writing
2 hours 30 minutes
Assessment
120 marks

No calculator or reference material is required. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.

Section A - Multiple-choice questions

Answer all 40 questions. Select the best answer for each question. Each question is worth 1 mark.

Question 1

1 mark
Stimulus

Questions 1-4 refer to the following information. During a ceramics safety drill, Ava touches an unexpectedly hot tray and rapidly withdraws her hand. A red warning light is repeatedly shown immediately before a brief burst of hot air that produces an involuntary startle. Later, the red warning light alone produces anticipatory fear.

In Ava's withdrawal response, the initial message from skin receptors travels towards the central nervous system through
  1. a somatic motor neuron in the peripheral nervous system.
  2. a sensory neuron in the peripheral nervous system.
  3. an autonomic motor neuron in the peripheral nervous system.
  4. an interneuron located outside the central nervous system.

Question 2

1 mark
Within Ava's rapid withdrawal reflex, a spinal interneuron primarily
  1. detects the external stimulus at the skin.
  2. relays information between sensory and motor neurons within the spinal cord.
  3. carries the motor command from the spinal cord to a muscle.
  4. produces conscious awareness before the hand moves.

Question 3

1 mark
During acquisition in the safety drill, the brief burst of hot air is the
  1. conditioned stimulus.
  2. conditioned response.
  3. unconditioned stimulus.
  4. neutral stimulus after learning.

Question 4

1 mark
After the pairings, the red warning light alone produces anticipatory fear. The red warning light is now the
  1. unconditioned stimulus.
  2. conditioned stimulus.
  3. unconditioned response.
  4. positive reinforcer.

Question 5

1 mark
Sleep is classified as an altered state of consciousness because, compared with normal waking consciousness, it involves
  1. a complete and permanent loss of all brain activity.
  2. systematic changes in awareness, attention, perception and responsiveness.
  3. the same awareness and responsiveness with only the eyes closed.
  4. continuous high-amplitude delta activity throughout every sleep stage.

Question 6

1 mark
The mental wellbeing continuum is dynamic because
  1. mental wellbeing is fixed once a diagnosis is made.
  2. every person moves through the same sequence at the same rate.
  3. a person's functioning can move in either direction as circumstances and supports change.
  4. only biological factors can change a person's position.

Question 7

1 mark
Glutamate is relevant to learning because it is
  1. the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
  2. a major excitatory neurotransmitter involved in strengthening neural connections.
  3. a hormone that is released only during the alarm reaction.
  4. a neuromodulator that controls skeletal muscles directly.

Question 8

1 mark
A passenger leaves a crowded carriage and immediately feels less anxious, making early exit more likely next time. This illustrates
  1. positive reinforcement of remaining on the carriage.
  2. positive punishment of anxiety.
  3. negative reinforcement of leaving.
  4. negative punishment of travelling.

Question 9

1 mark
Which set of physiological measures most directly supports classification of sleep stages?
  1. Heart rate, body mass and height
  2. EEG, EOG and EMG
  3. A sleep diary, interview and questionnaire
  4. Blood pressure, reaction time and room temperature

Question 10

1 mark
For a person with Advanced Sleep Phase Disorder who becomes sleepy and wakes too early, appropriately timed bright-light therapy is most likely to be used
  1. in the early morning to shift sleep timing earlier.
  2. at midday to remove every ultradian cycle.
  3. during NREM Stage 3 to increase muscle tone.
  4. in the evening to shift sleep timing later.

Question 11

1 mark
Stimulus

Questions 11-14 refer to the following information. Lara learns that an early-morning interstate audition has been brought forward. She judges that the change threatens her performance and initially doubts that her preparation resources are sufficient. During several late practice nights she sleeps for about five hours and finds it harder to concentrate on repetitive scales. Morning daylight remains an important timing cue.

Immediately after Lara receives the unexpected announcement, resistance to stress briefly falls below normal. In General Adaptation Syndrome, this is the
  1. countershock phase of the alarm reaction.
  2. resistance stage.
  3. shock phase of the alarm reaction.
  4. exhaustion stage.

Question 12

1 mark
Lara's judgement about her available preparation time, skills and support is best classified as
  1. a primary appraisal of whether the event is relevant.
  2. a secondary appraisal of coping resources and options.
  3. an exhaustion response caused by prolonged demand.
  4. an avoidance response because the student considers support.

Question 13

1 mark
Which reported change is most consistent with Lara's recent partial sleep deprivation?
  1. consistently faster and more accurate decision making.
  2. improved behavioural response consistency.
  3. permanent loss of semantic memory after one night.
  4. greater difficulty concentrating on a monotonous task.

Question 14

1 mark
In Lara's sleep-wake timing, the suprachiasmatic nucleus most directly contributes by
  1. producing every ultradian sleep-stage cycle independently of light.
  2. storing procedural memories formed during sleep.
  3. directly measuring skeletal-muscle tone during REM sleep.
  4. using light information to coordinate an approximately 24-hour rhythm.

Question 15

1 mark
A coach adds an extra equipment-check task immediately after repeated lateness, and lateness then decreases. The added task functions as
  1. negative punishment.
  2. positive reinforcement.
  3. negative reinforcement.
  4. positive punishment.

Question 16

1 mark
Which option is best classified as a biological protective factor for mental wellbeing?
  1. Cognitive behavioural strategies
  2. Authentic and energising support from family, friends and community
  3. Adequate nutrition and hydration and sleep
  4. Avoiding every situation that produces short-term anxiety

Question 17

1 mark
A reduction in effective GABA transmission could increase vulnerability to anxiety because GABA normally
  1. excites every postsynaptic neuron it reaches.
  2. stores emotional memories in the amygdala.
  3. inhibits neural activity in the central nervous system.
  4. initiates voluntary motor commands in the spinal cord.

Question 18

1 mark
Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome is characterised by
  1. sleep onset and waking that occur substantially later than desired.
  2. repeated breathing interruptions caused by airway obstruction.
  3. sleep onset and waking that occur substantially earlier than desired.
  4. an inability to enter REM sleep during any sleep episode.

Question 19

1 mark
In the Atkinson-Shiffrin multi-store model, attention supports movement of selected information from
  1. long-term memory to sensory memory.
  2. procedural memory to episodic memory.
  3. sensory memory to short-term memory.
  4. short-term memory directly to a sensory receptor.

Question 20

1 mark
Which action most directly protects confidentiality when reporting a small-group study?
  1. Reporting de-identified aggregate results and securely limiting access to identifiable records
  2. Publishing each participant's raw comments with their first name
  3. Keeping identifiers in an unrestricted shared folder
  4. Telling participants that withdrawal is unavailable after consent

Question 21

1 mark
Stimulus

Questions 21-24 refer to the following information. Rescue volunteers briefly hold a radio code in mind before recording it and repeatedly practise a specialised knot until the sequence is fluent. During a later sleep recording, one interval shows high-amplitude, low-frequency brain activity; another shows rapid eye movements, mixed-frequency brain activity and markedly reduced muscle tone.

Holding the radio code briefly before recording it demonstrates that short-term memory has
  1. limited capacity and limited duration unless control processes are used.
  2. unlimited capacity and permanent duration.
  3. storage of motor skills only.
  4. a momentary record that contains visual material only.

Question 22

1 mark
The volunteers' fluent, well-practised knot sequence is primarily supported by
  1. procedural memory involving the basal ganglia and cerebellum.
  2. semantic memory involving the amygdala only.
  3. episodic memory involving the spinal cord.
  4. sensory memory involving the neocortex only.

Question 23

1 mark
The interval with high-amplitude, low-frequency brain activity is most consistent with
  1. REM sleep.
  2. NREM Stage 3.
  3. NREM Stage 1.
  4. normal waking consciousness.

Question 24

1 mark
The interval with rapid eye movements, mixed-frequency brain activity and markedly reduced muscle tone is
  1. NREM Stage 3.
  2. NREM Stage 2.
  3. normal waking consciousness.
  4. REM sleep.

Question 25

1 mark
Long-term potentiation is best described as
  1. a lasting increase in the efficiency of synaptic transmission after repeated co-activation.
  2. a temporary reduction in arousal after a stressor ends.
  3. the replacement of an explicit memory with a procedural memory.
  4. a permanent increase in the number of sensory neurons in a reflex arc.

Question 26

1 mark
Which option is best classified as a psychological protective factor?
  1. Using cognitive behavioural strategies to test an unhelpful prediction
  2. Obtaining adequate nutrition and hydration
  3. Receiving authentic and energising community support
  4. Changing the physical accessibility of a building

Question 27

1 mark
The method of loci supports recall by
  1. forming a pronounceable word from the first letters of every item.
  2. repeating each item without organising it.
  3. linking information to ordered imagined locations that later act as cues.
  4. converting every item into a motor routine.

Question 28

1 mark
The recurring progression through NREM and REM stages during a sleep episode is an example of
  1. a circannual rhythm.
  2. a conditioned reflex.
  3. a fixed biological response that occurs once each day.
  4. an ultradian rhythm.

Question 29

1 mark
In observational learning, retention is demonstrated when a learner
  1. forms and keeps a mental representation of the modelled steps.
  2. first directs attention towards the model.
  3. has the physical capacity to perform the steps.
  4. expects a valued outcome for performing the behaviour.

Question 30

1 mark
Reproducibility is most directly examined when
  1. the original researcher repeats one calculation on the same data.
  2. participants are told the preferred result before responding.
  3. a researcher removes results that differ from the hypothesis.
  4. an independent team uses the documented method and compares its findings.

Question 31

1 mark
Stimulus

Questions 31-34 refer to the following information. After a frightening dog encounter, Noah experiences fear when seeing harmless dogs and begins avoiding a local park. With Noah's consent, a clinician involves a trusted supporter, teaches relaxation, constructs a graded fear hierarchy and introduces progressively closer contact with calm trained dogs. Change is monitored using a standardised fear measure and chosen approach behaviour.

In a classical-conditioning account of Noah's fear, the sight of a harmless dog has become
  1. an unconditioned response.
  2. positive punishment.
  3. a conditioned stimulus.
  4. a biological protective factor.

Question 32

1 mark
The intervention described for Noah most directly includes which defining components of systematic desensitisation?
  1. relaxation, a graded fear hierarchy and gradual exposure.
  2. flooding, punishment and removal of support.
  3. avoidance rehearsal, medication and sleep restriction.
  4. psychoeducation alone with no contact with feared cues.

Question 33

1 mark
Which feature of Noah's plan is best classified as a social protective factor?
  1. Learning a relaxation response
  2. Using a standardised fear measure
  3. Reduced GABA-mediated inhibition
  4. Involvement of a trusted supporter

Question 34

1 mark
The standardised fear measure has stronger validity when it
  1. produces the same result regardless of what is being measured.
  2. contains only numerical data.
  3. appropriately measures the fear construct the clinician intends to measure.
  4. always supports the researcher's prediction.

Question 35

1 mark
Which response is most directly regulated by an autonomic motor pathway?
  1. A change in pupil diameter when lighting changes
  2. Writing a label by hand
  3. Choosing which shelf to inspect
  4. Recalling a safety instruction

Question 36

1 mark
Which action best demonstrates coping flexibility?
  1. Reviewing whether a strategy suits the changing demand and adjusting it when needed
  2. Using one familiar strategy for every demand
  3. Avoiding feedback about whether a strategy worked
  4. Classifying every stressor as a threat before considering resources

Question 37

1 mark
The gut-brain axis is described as bidirectional because
  1. all communication travels from the brain to the gut through one nerve.
  2. gut microbiota determine behaviour without influence from the brain.
  3. gut and brain processes can influence each other through neural, hormonal and immune pathways.
  4. only immune signals travel between the digestive system and the brain.

Question 38

1 mark
Which conclusion about aphantasia is best supported?
  1. Aphantasia proves that the hippocampus cannot store explicit memories.
  2. Reduced voluntary visual imagery does not mean that every form of memory is absent.
  3. A person with aphantasia cannot use verbal organisation strategies.
  4. Aphantasia necessarily progresses to Alzheimer disease.

Question 39

1 mark
Shift-work sleep disorder can arise when
  1. work demands repeatedly conflict with the person's circadian sleep-wake timing.
  2. the person experiences one unusually demanding workday.
  3. REM sleep occurs more than once during the night.
  4. a sleep diary is used instead of polysomnography.

Question 40

1 mark
Which arrangement most directly supports self-determination in research with an Aboriginal community-controlled organisation?
  1. Outside researchers choose the question and consult the organisation after analysis
  2. Individual consent is treated as permission for unrestricted reuse of community data
  3. The organisation governs priorities, methods, data use, interpretation and communication of findings
  4. A sponsor receives raw records so it can decide which findings are important

Section B - Short-answer and extended-response questions

Answer all nine questions. Question 9 is a standalone 10-mark extended response and has no subparts.

Question 1

8 marks
Stimulus

During a supervised marine-rescue drill, Eli steps on an unstable pontoon edge and rapidly withdraws the foot before consciously identifying the movement. Later, the class repeatedly practises a deliberate rope-release sequence. A simplified neural model shows repeated co-activation at connections involved in the practised sequence, while inhibitory signalling prevents irrelevant motor output.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
(a) 3 marks
Explain the neural pathway that allows Eli's foot to withdraw before conscious awareness.
(b) 3 marks
Describe chemical transmission across one synapse in the pathway.
(c) 2 marks
Use glutamate, GABA and long-term potentiation to explain one feature of the later practice model.

Question 2

9 marks
Stimulus

A youth orchestra learns that an outdoor performance has been moved forward by two weeks. Priya first judges that the shortened preparation time could threaten the quality of her solo and that her current preparation is insufficient. She experiences increased heart rate and abdominal discomfort. Over the next fortnight she plans shorter daily rehearsals, asks a tutor for feedback and reviews whether each strategy is helping. The performance remains demanding, but she reports greater confidence and less discomfort. Medical causes requiring treatment have not been established or excluded by this scenario.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
(a) 3 marks
Apply the transactional model of stress and coping to Priya's initial and later appraisals.
(b) 3 marks
Explain how Priya's experience could be represented across the alarm reaction and resistance stages of General Adaptation Syndrome.
(c) 3 marks
Explain one plausible gut-brain interaction and evaluate Priya's coping.

Question 3

10 marks
Stimulus

A school drone club teaches a landing response for sudden crosswinds. During early practice, a red warning pulse always occurs immediately before a fan produces a startling gust. A skilled peer then models a three-step landing sequence while describing each step. Students who complete the sequence accurately receive an additional supervised flight turn. In a later session the club tests the same sequence with a different drone and no red pulse.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
(a) 3 marks
Map the three-phase classical-conditioning sequence for the red warning pulse.
(b) 4 marks
Apply attention, retention, reproduction and motivation to learning the landing sequence from the peer.
(c) 3 marks
Explain the operant consequence and evaluate the later-session test.

Question 4

10 marks
Stimulus

Museum volunteers learned eighteen exhibit codes. One group linked the codes to ordered imagined locations through the museum; a second group created an acrostic sentence whose successive words began with the code initials; a third group repeatedly spoke each code. Existing volunteer shifts determined the groups. One week later, mean correct recall was 14.1, 11.8 and 10.6 respectively. Volunteers also reported factual exhibit descriptions, details of their own first shift and a well-practised artefact-handling routine.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
(a) 3 marks
Use the Atkinson-Shiffrin multi-store model to explain how one code could become available for later report.
(b) 3 marks
Identify and compare the three learning strategies.
(c) 4 marks
Classify the three long-term memories and evaluate the comparison.

Question 5

9 marks
Stimulus

A sleep laboratory recorded one five-hour sleep period from a night-ferry worker after three consecutive night shifts. The supplied hypnogram was classified from EEG, EOG and EMG recordings. The worker had slept at home in daylight on the previous two days, consumed caffeine six hours before the laboratory recording and reported that the laboratory felt unfamiliar.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
Graph Preview
AwakeREMNREM 1NREM 2NREM 3 0150300 Five-hour night-ferry worker sleep Minutes after sleep onset Sleep stage
(a) 3 marks
Explain how EEG, EOG and EMG evidence supports classification of NREM Stage 3 and REM sleep.
(b) 3 marks
Describe two features of the supplied sleep architecture and explain how one feature demonstrates an ultradian rhythm.
(c) 3 marks
Evaluate whether this record shows the worker's usual sleep after night shifts.

Question 6

8 marks
Stimulus

For four months, a 17-year-old apprentice has been unable to fall asleep until about 2.30 am and struggles to wake for a 7.30 am start, although sleep duration and daytime functioning improve when later weekend times are permitted. A clinician considers Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome after assessing other explanations. With the apprentice's consent, the plan includes consistently timed morning light, a stable wake time, reduced bright screen exposure close to bedtime and a two-week sleep diary. No medication is prescribed.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
(a) 3 marks
Explain why the pattern is consistent with a circadian sleep disorder rather than an ultradian-rhythm problem.
(b) 3 marks
Explain how two components of the plan could shift or support sleep timing.
(c) 2 marks
Evaluate the two-week sleep diary as evidence of improvement.

Question 7

8 marks
Stimulus

After a ferry gangway moved sharply during a storm, Amira developed intense fear when approaching gangways. Turning back produces immediate relief, and friends now complete water-based tasks for her. A clinician considers biological vulnerability involving GABA dysfunction, the learned fear and relief-reinforced avoidance, and friends' unintentional support of avoidance. A trusted crew member and a temporary accessible land route help Amira keep participating while treatment begins. Amira chooses collaborative CBT and systematic desensitisation using inspected stationary gangways and a gradual hierarchy.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
(a) 3 marks
Explain how classical conditioning and negative reinforcement can account for development and maintenance of the fear.
(b) 2 marks
Apply a biopsychosocial approach and evaluate the temporary land route.
(c) 3 marks
Explain and evaluate the chosen intervention plan.

Question 8

8 marks
Stimulus

An Aboriginal community-controlled organisation governs a youth food-and-Country program. Elders and young people co-design the evaluation question, decide which knowledge may be discussed, approve the consent process and retain control of records and reporting. Voluntary yarning circles describe relationships among Country, family, culture and community. With organisation approval, anonymous attendance totals show a rise from a mean of 1.6 to 2.4 activities per participant each week. A funder asks for raw recordings and claims the attendance change proves the same program will improve mental wellbeing in every Aboriginal community.

Use the stimulus and any supplied data or figure above to answer every part of this question.
(a) 3 marks
Apply self-determination, cultural continuity and social and emotional wellbeing to the program.
(b) 3 marks
Distinguish the evidence forms and evaluate the funder's conclusion.
(c) 2 marks
Evaluate the request for raw recordings and propose an appropriate reporting response.

Question 9

10 marks
Stimulus

A company recruited 72 adolescents with an existing clinician-confirmed dog phobia and randomly allocated them to one of two eight-week programs. Group V used a headset for collaborative CBT and systematic desensitisation: participants learned progressive muscle relaxation, constructed an individually agreed fear hierarchy and paired relaxation with gradual virtual exposure from less to more feared dog situations. Group V also received breathing retraining as a separate biological intervention component. Group P received weekly psychoeducation with a parent or supporter. Independent assessors who did not know group allocation recorded outcomes before and after treatment. In a controlled real-world observation, chosen approach to within five metres of a calm trained dog increased from 18% to 63% in Group V and from 21% to 39% in Group P. Mean fear ratings on a 0-10 scale fell from 8.1 to 4.6 and from 7.9 to 6.3 respectively. Twelve Group V participants and three Group P participants withdrew; several Group V participants reported nausea or distress. The study had no no-treatment comparison, no measure beyond eight weeks and no participants from remote communities. Neither group received a supported real-world exposure program, so the study did not directly compare virtual treatment with supported real-world treatment. The company claimed the headset erased the conditioned fear memory, proved breathing retraining caused the improvement, worked equally for every adolescent, and made clinician or supporter involvement unnecessary.

Evaluate the claim that a virtual-reality program erases dog-phobia memories and is an effective replacement for supported real-world treatment for every adolescent. Integrate learning processes, the biopsychosocial approach, intervention mechanisms, the study evidence and ethical practice.

Response - Question 9

10 marks

Response - Question 9 (continued)

10 marks

Continue your response in the space below.

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Worked Solutions And Marking Guide

Section A Question 1

Answer: a sensory neuron in the peripheral nervous system.

Sensory neurons carry afferent information from receptors towards central processing.

Section A Question 2

Answer: relays information between sensory and motor neurons within the spinal cord.

An interneuron can link sensory input to motor output within the spinal cord before conscious awareness.

Section A Question 3

Answer: unconditioned stimulus.

The hot-air burst naturally elicits an involuntary startle and therefore functions as the unconditioned stimulus.

Section A Question 4

Answer: conditioned stimulus.

The previously neutral warning light becomes a conditioned stimulus when it elicits learned anticipatory fear.

Section A Question 5

Answer: systematic changes in awareness, attention, perception and responsiveness.

Sleep involves measurable changes in psychological functioning and responsiveness relative to normal waking consciousness, so it is classified as an altered state.

Section A Question 6

Answer: a person's functioning can move in either direction as circumstances and supports change.

Wellbeing can vary over time and across contexts as interacting influences change.

Section A Question 7

Answer: a major excitatory neurotransmitter involved in strengthening neural connections.

Glutamate provides major excitatory transmission and contributes to activity-related strengthening of connections.

Section A Question 8

Answer: negative reinforcement of leaving.

Removal of anxiety after leaving increases the future likelihood of leaving.

Section A Question 9

Answer: EEG, EOG and EMG

EEG records brain electrical patterns, EOG eye movements and EMG muscle activity.

Section A Question 10

Answer: in the evening to shift sleep timing later.

Evening light can shift an undesirably early circadian sleep pattern later.

Section A Question 11

Answer: shock phase of the alarm reaction.

The shock phase is the initial drop in resistance before countershock mobilisation.

Section A Question 12

Answer: a secondary appraisal of coping resources and options.

Secondary appraisal evaluates resources and options for managing an appraised demand.

Section A Question 13

Answer: greater difficulty concentrating on a monotonous task.

Insufficient sleep can impair concentration and consistency of cognitive performance.

Section A Question 14

Answer: using light information to coordinate an approximately 24-hour rhythm.

The suprachiasmatic nucleus is a central circadian clock that is adjusted by light information.

Section A Question 15

Answer: positive punishment.

Presenting an aversive consequence that reduces a behaviour is positive punishment.

Section A Question 16

Answer: Adequate nutrition and hydration and sleep

Nutrition, hydration and sleep support biological functioning.

Section A Question 17

Answer: inhibits neural activity in the central nervous system.

GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

Section A Question 18

Answer: sleep onset and waking that occur substantially later than desired.

DSPS involves a sleep-wake pattern shifted later relative to required times.

Section A Question 19

Answer: sensory memory to short-term memory.

Attention selects information from the brief sensory store for short-term processing.

Section A Question 20

Answer: Reporting de-identified aggregate results and securely limiting access to identifiable records

Confidentiality requires controlled handling of identifiable records and reporting that does not reveal participants.

Section A Question 21

Answer: limited capacity and limited duration unless control processes are used.

Short-term memory holds a limited amount of information for a limited time.

Section A Question 22

Answer: procedural memory involving the basal ganglia and cerebellum.

Practised motor skills are implicit procedural memories associated with the basal ganglia and cerebellum.

Section A Question 23

Answer: NREM Stage 3.

High-amplitude, low-frequency delta activity is characteristic of NREM Stage 3.

Section A Question 24

Answer: REM sleep.

Rapid eye movements, wake-like mixed-frequency activity and marked muscle atonia identify REM sleep.

Section A Question 25

Answer: a lasting increase in the efficiency of synaptic transmission after repeated co-activation.

Repeated co-activation can produce a durable increase in synaptic efficiency.

Section A Question 26

Answer: Using cognitive behavioural strategies to test an unhelpful prediction

Cognitive behavioural strategies are psychological skills that can support adaptive thinking and behaviour.

Section A Question 27

Answer: linking information to ordered imagined locations that later act as cues.

The mnemonic uses a familiar ordered route of imagined locations to organise and cue information.

Section A Question 28

Answer: an ultradian rhythm.

NREM-REM cycles recur more than once within approximately 24 hours and are ultradian.

Section A Question 29

Answer: forms and keeps a mental representation of the modelled steps.

Retention concerns remembering the observed behaviour for later reproduction.

Section A Question 30

Answer: an independent team uses the documented method and compares its findings.

Independent use of a sufficiently documented method tests whether a finding can be reproduced.

Section A Question 31

Answer: a conditioned stimulus.

Through acquisition, a previously neutral cue can become a conditioned stimulus that elicits fear.

Section A Question 32

Answer: relaxation, a graded fear hierarchy and gradual exposure.

The intervention pairs learned relaxation with gradual progression through a fear hierarchy.

Section A Question 33

Answer: Involvement of a trusted supporter

A trusted supportive relationship is a social protective influence; relaxation is psychological and GABA functioning is biological.

Section A Question 34

Answer: appropriately measures the fear construct the clinician intends to measure.

Validity concerns whether the selected measure is appropriate for the intended construct and inference.

Section A Question 35

Answer: A change in pupil diameter when lighting changes

Autonomic pathways regulate internal organs, glands and involuntary responses such as pupil diameter.

Section A Question 36

Answer: Reviewing whether a strategy suits the changing demand and adjusting it when needed

Coping flexibility involves matching and adapting strategies to context and effectiveness.

Section A Question 37

Answer: gut and brain processes can influence each other through neural, hormonal and immune pathways.

The gut and brain influence each other through several interacting biological pathways.

Section A Question 38

Answer: Reduced voluntary visual imagery does not mean that every form of memory is absent.

Aphantasia concerns voluntary visual imagery and should not be treated as a global memory deficit or diagnosis.

Section A Question 39

Answer: work demands repeatedly conflict with the person's circadian sleep-wake timing.

Work at biologically atypical times can create persistent misalignment between required wakefulness and circadian timing.

Section A Question 40

Answer: The organisation governs priorities, methods, data use, interpretation and communication of findings

Self-determination requires meaningful community authority across the research process, not consultation without control.

Section B Question 1

(a) A sensory neuron carries receptor information towards the spinal cord. A spinal interneuron relays the signal to a motor neuron, which carries an outgoing command to the relevant skeletal muscle. This spinal reflex produces withdrawal before ascending processing supports conscious awareness.

The explanation identifies the direction and role of all three neurons and the timing boundary.

(b) The presynaptic terminal releases neurotransmitter into the synaptic gap. The neurotransmitter diffuses across the gap and binds to compatible receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, changing the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will fire.

A complete account follows the direction from release to postsynaptic effect.

(c) Glutamate can provide excitatory transmission during repeated co-activation, contributing to long-term potentiation and more efficient transmission at relevant connections. GABA provides inhibitory transmission that can reduce irrelevant neural activity; it should not be described as strengthening every connection.

The response distinguishes excitation, inhibition and activity-related strengthening.

Mark allocation

  • Award neural roles separately. Do not reward claims that the reflex excludes the brain from later awareness or that practice strengthens every connection equally.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Explains sensory input travelling towards the spinal cord.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains the spinal interneuron relay and motor output to skeletal muscle.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Links the spinal reflex to withdrawal before conscious awareness.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

States that neurotransmitter is released from the presynaptic terminal.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains diffusion across the synaptic gap and binding to compatible postsynaptic receptors.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains a resulting change in postsynaptic neural activity.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Links glutamate and repeated co-activation to long-term potentiation at relevant connections.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains GABA's inhibitory role without claiming that all neural activity is strengthened.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 2

(a) Priya's primary appraisal identifies the changed deadline as threatening to a valued performance. Her secondary appraisal initially judges available preparation resources as insufficient, so perceived demands exceed resources. Planning, feedback and strategy review alter Priya's perceived coping resources, so her later secondary appraisal can judge the demand as more manageable. This does not prove that the demand disappeared.

The model is applied as a changing appraisal rather than a fixed trait.

(b) The unexpected change can produce an initial shock drop in resistance followed by countershock mobilisation, including sympathetic changes such as increased heart rate. Continued effort across the fortnight is consistent with the resistance stage, when resistance remains elevated while the demand persists. The evidence does not establish exhaustion because prolonged resource depletion or stress-related illness is not shown.

The answer calibrates each stage to the supplied duration and evidence.

(c) Stress-related neural, hormonal or immune signalling could influence gastrointestinal activity, while gut signals could in turn influence brain processes and perceived stress. Planning and seeking feedback are approach coping because they engage with the demand and resources. Reviewing and adjusting strategies demonstrates coping flexibility; the symptom change alone does not prove a gut-brain mechanism or medical diagnosis.

Mechanism, coping classification and evidential caution are all required.

Mark allocation

  • Do not award a coping classification from the strategy name alone; require evidence about what Priya did and how it functioned in context.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Applies primary appraisal to the significance or threat of the shortened deadline.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Applies secondary appraisal to the initial insufficiency of coping resources.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains how Priya's later secondary appraisal changes as her perceived coping resources or strategy effectiveness improve.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Distinguishes shock from countershock within the alarm reaction.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Links continued mobilisation during the fortnight to the resistance stage.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains why the evidence does not establish exhaustion.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains bidirectional gut-brain influence through at least one plausible pathway.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Classifies planning or feedback seeking as approach coping because it engages with the demand or resources.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Links strategy review to coping flexibility and avoids diagnosis or causal proof.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 3

(a) Before acquisition, the red pulse is a neutral stimulus, while the startling gust is the unconditioned stimulus and the involuntary startle is the unconditioned response. During acquisition the pulse is paired with the gust. After acquisition, the pulse is a conditioned stimulus that can elicit a conditioned anticipatory response.

The sequence separates involuntary learning from the deliberate landing routine.

(b) Students must attend to the skilled peer and relevant steps, retain a mental representation of the sequence, have the physical and cognitive capacity to reproduce it, and be motivated by an expected valued outcome such as the additional supervised flight turn.

Each of the four named observational-learning stages must be applied to the modelled routine.

(c) Adding an extra supervised flight turn after an accurate landing is positive reinforcement if it increases future accurate landings. Performance with a different drone and without the pulse can provide evidence that the deliberate routine transfers beyond the original cues. A stronger test would standardise wind strength and practice exposure and compare performance with an appropriate group or baseline.

The answer distinguishes reinforcement of deliberate behaviour from the conditioned response.

Mark allocation

  • Do not treat the involuntary startle as the deliberate landing behaviour. Award transfer credit only when the response uses the changed context or cue arrangement.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Maps the gust and involuntary startle as UCS and UCR before acquisition.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains pairing of the neutral red pulse with the gust during acquisition.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Maps the pulse and learned anticipatory response as CS and CR after acquisition.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies attention to the peer or relevant demonstrated features.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies retention to remembering a representation of the sequence.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies reproduction to the capacity to perform the landing sequence.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies motivation to an expected valued outcome or observed success.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains positive reinforcement using the added valued flight turn and increased future behaviour.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains how the changed drone or absence of the pulse tests transfer of the deliberate sequence.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Proposes a controlled comparison or baseline that addresses a relevant alternative explanation.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 4

(a) Attention selects the code from sensory memory for short-term memory. Rehearsal or organised encoding increases the likelihood of durable long-term storage, and retrieval returns the code to short-term memory for conscious report.

The response traces information through the stores using control processes.

(b) The ordered imagined museum locations form the method of loci. The sentence is an acrostic because successive word initials cue the codes; an acronym would form a pronounceable word from initials. Repeated speaking is maintenance rehearsal. The higher mean for the loci group is compatible with a benefit in this sample but does not establish that the strategy caused the difference.

Accurate defining features matter more than the strategy labels alone.

(c) Factual exhibit descriptions are semantic memories, the first-shift details are episodic memories, and the handling routine is procedural memory associated with the basal ganglia and cerebellum. Existing-shift allocation may confound strategy with group differences. Random allocation, equivalent exposure, baseline measurement and a delayed test under standardised conditions would strengthen the comparison.

Memory classification and design evaluation are marked independently.

Mark allocation

  • Do not infer that a higher group mean proves the strategy works for every volunteer. Accept equivalent design improvements only when they address the stated limitation.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Explains attention from sensory memory into short-term memory.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains rehearsal or organised encoding supporting long-term storage.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains retrieval from long-term memory for conscious use.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies method of loci and explains the ordered-location cue structure.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies the acrostic and distinguishes it from an acronym.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies maintenance rehearsal and interprets the means without causal overstatement.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Classifies factual descriptions as semantic and first-shift details as episodic.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Classifies the practised routine as procedural and links it to relevant brain structures.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains how existing-shift allocation limits causal inference.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Proposes at least one matched design improvement such as random allocation, baseline measurement or standardised exposure.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 5

(a) EEG can identify the high-amplitude, low-frequency delta activity characteristic of NREM Stage 3 and the mixed-frequency activity of REM. EOG records the rapid eye movements characteristic of REM, while EMG records the marked reduction in skeletal-muscle tone. Convergence across measures supports stage classification.

The three measures provide complementary rather than interchangeable evidence.

(b) NREM Stage 3 occurs earlier in the record, while later cycles return to REM without another plotted NREM Stage 3 interval. The trace also shows recurring transitions through NREM stages into REM across the five-hour record. This recurring NREM-REM cycling demonstrates an ultradian rhythm because the cycle repeats more than once within a 24-hour period.

Award two distinct plotted features separately; the ultradian mark requires an explicit link from recurring NREM-REM cycling.

(c) One laboratory period may be influenced by the unfamiliar setting, recent daylight sleep, caffeine and day-to-day variation. It cannot establish a usual pattern or isolate the effect of night shifts. Repeated recordings under matched conditions, supported by a sleep diary and relevant schedule and caffeine records, would provide stronger evidence.

The improvement must address representativeness and relevant competing influences.

Mark allocation

  • A diary may complement timing and context evidence but cannot replace physiological measures for sleep-stage classification.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Explains how EEG evidence identifies NREM Stage 3 and REM patterns.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains EOG evidence for rapid eye movements.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains EMG evidence for low muscle tone and convergence across measures.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Describes one valid sleep-architecture feature shown in the hypnogram.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Describes a second valid sleep-architecture feature shown in the hypnogram.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that recurring NREM-REM cycling demonstrates an ultradian rhythm because the cycle repeats more than once within a 24-hour period.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains why one laboratory record cannot establish the worker's usual pattern.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Applies at least one specific competing influence from the stimulus.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Proposes repeated matched measurement with relevant schedule, diary or caffeine information.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 6

(a) The persistent late sleep onset and waking relative to required times is consistent with Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome. It concerns the timing of an approximately 24-hour sleep-wake rhythm, whereas an ultradian rhythm refers to recurring NREM-REM cycles within a sleep episode. Better functioning at permitted later times supports a timing problem but does not alone confirm diagnosis.

The answer distinguishes the timescales and preserves the diagnostic boundary.

(b) Consistently timed morning light provides a zeitgeber that can shift an undesirably late circadian pattern earlier. A stable wake time and reduced bright evening screen exposure provide more consistent timing cues and reduce light input that may support later alertness. Effects should be monitored and timing adjusted by the clinician rather than assuming more light is always better.

Mechanisms must be applied to the direction of the sleep-timing problem.

(c) The diary can track sleep timing, duration and adherence across multiple days in the usual setting, but self-report may be incomplete or inaccurate and cannot classify physiological sleep stages. Combining it with relevant functioning measures and an objective timing measure where appropriate would strengthen evaluation.

The diary is useful for repeated timing evidence but has a clear measurement limit.

Mark allocation

  • Do not reward advice to use unsupervised light at arbitrary times; direction and timing determine the intended circadian effect.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Links the persistent late timing to Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Distinguishes the circadian sleep-wake rhythm from ultradian NREM-REM cycling.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the later-time evidence without treating it as diagnosis by itself.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains morning light as a zeitgeber used to shift the late pattern earlier.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains the role of a stable wake time or reduced bright evening screen exposure.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Qualifies treatment using consistent timing, monitoring or clinician oversight.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains one strength of repeated diary evidence in the usual setting.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains a self-report or stage-classification limitation and a suitable complementary measure.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 7

(a) The storm movement is the unconditioned stimulus and initial fear the unconditioned response. The gangway becomes a conditioned stimulus that later elicits conditioned fear. Turning back removes anxiety, negatively reinforcing avoidance and making future turning back more likely.

The account separates acquisition from maintenance.

(b) GABA dysfunction is a possible biological vulnerability, learned fear and avoidance are psychological influences, and friends completing tasks can be a social influence that maintains avoidance. Short-term access via the land route can keep Amira involved and support day-to-day functioning during early treatment. However, indefinite fear-driven use solely to escape gangways could also maintain avoidance through negative reinforcement.

An access support must be evaluated by context, purpose and short- versus long-term consequences.

(c) CBT can help Amira identify and test catastrophic predictions against evidence. Systematic desensitisation involves learning relaxation, constructing a graded hierarchy and pairing relaxation with gradual exposure from less to more feared gangway situations. Collaboration, consent, stopping rights and inspected stable settings are essential; chosen participation and functioning are more appropriate outcomes than forced zero anxiety.

No surprise, flooding or physically unsafe exposure is creditable.

Mark allocation

  • Do not award the same evidence as both a cause and a protective factor. Evaluate alternative-route use by its function and duration, not by the route label alone.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Maps the storm movement and initial fear as UCS and UCR.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains the gangway becoming a CS that elicits a CR.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains immediate anxiety relief as negative reinforcement of avoidance.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies interacting biological, psychological and social influences.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Distinguishes temporary access support from indefinite fear-driven avoidance that may be negatively reinforced.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains CBT using identification and testing of unhelpful predictions.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains relaxation, hierarchy and gradual exposure in systematic desensitisation.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Requires collaboration, consent and physical safety and identifies a functional outcome.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 8

(a) Organisation control over priorities, methods, records and reporting supports self-determination. Supporting relationships with Country, Elders, culture and young people can strengthen cultural continuity. Together these relationships reflect an interconnected and holistic account of social and emotional wellbeing, not a single individual symptom score.

The response remains strengths-based and specific to the community's governance.

(b) The attendance totals are quantitative evidence about participation, while approved yarning-circle accounts are qualitative evidence about meanings and relationships. The increase is compatible with greater participation but does not by itself establish a causal mental-wellbeing effect. One community's evaluation cannot justify a universal claim because communities, priorities and contexts differ.

Different evidence forms answer different questions and do not authorise a universal causal claim.

(c) Consent to participate does not authorise transfer of raw recordings to a funder. The organisation retains authority over access, interpretation and communication; privacy, withdrawal choices and restricted knowledge must be protected. Any report should use only organisation-approved de-identified or aggregate findings and preserve agreed limits on future use.

Community authority and individual participant rights operate together.

Mark allocation

  • Do not reward proposals that shift control to the funder or assume that one community represents all Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Links organisation authority across the evaluation to self-determination.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Links intergenerational and cultural relationships to cultural continuity.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains holistic and interconnected social and emotional wellbeing.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Classifies and interprets the quantitative attendance evidence.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Classifies and interprets the qualitative yarning-circle evidence.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part b (1 mark)

Rejects causal and pan-Aboriginal generalisation using the design and community-context boundaries.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains why participation consent does not authorise raw-record transfer and preserves organisation authority.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Part c (1 mark)

Requires privacy, withdrawal and organisation-approved de-identified or aggregate reporting.

Acceptable alternatives: Equivalent domain-accurate wording that preserves the same mechanism and evidence boundary.

Do not credit by itself: Names a concept without applying it to the supplied evidence, or states a stronger conclusion than the evidence supports.

Section B Question 9

Indicative answer: A strong response explains that a dog-related conditioned stimulus can elicit learned fear and that anxiety relief can negatively reinforce avoidance. CBT can test catastrophic predictions. Systematic desensitisation pairs learned progressive muscle relaxation with gradual movement through an agreed fear hierarchy, while breathing retraining remains a separate biological intervention component. Psychoeducation is a social intervention for families or supporters. Random allocation, baseline data, blinded independent assessment and real-world behavioural evidence strengthen the comparison. Group V improved more on the reported outcomes, but bundled components prevent isolation of breathing retraining, systematic desensitisation or virtual exposure; differential attrition may bias results; and the absence of longer follow-up limits durability claims. Because there was no supported real-world treatment comparator, the study cannot establish that virtual treatment is an effective replacement for supported real-world treatment. The sample also does not establish equal effects for every adolescent or remote community, and the data do not show that a memory was erased. Ethical delivery requires informed consent and age-appropriate assent, stopping and withdrawal rights, monitoring and response to nausea or distress, safe real-world transfer where chosen, and continued clinician and supporter involvement according to need.

The task rewards an integrated evidence-proportionate decision. It does not reward equating symptom change with erased memory or treating virtual exposure as automatically safe and sufficient.

Mark allocation

  • Mark holistically first, then use the four domain criteria as an evidence audit.
  • A response cannot receive more than 6 marks if it accepts erased memory, a breathing-retraining-only cause, virtual treatment as a proven replacement despite the missing supported real-world comparator, or universal effectiveness without qualification.
  • A response cannot receive more than 4 marks if it lists intervention names without applying mechanisms and study evidence.
  • Do not require one final treatment choice. Reward a justified decision that preserves participant choice, safety and appropriate human support.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (3 marks)

Explains learned fear and avoidance maintenance and accurately relates CBT and gradual exposure to the intervention.

Acceptable alternatives: A different evidence-based judgement is acceptable when it accurately uses the supplied data and Psychology.

Do not credit by itself: Summarises the dossier without integrating evidence, mechanism and methodological limits.

Integrated response (2 marks)

Uses a biopsychosocial approach and classifies bundled intervention components without double counting them.

Acceptable alternatives: A different evidence-based judgement is acceptable when it accurately uses the supplied data and Psychology.

Do not credit by itself: Summarises the dossier without integrating evidence, mechanism and methodological limits.

Integrated response (3 marks)

Interprets the numerical and methodological evidence and rejects claims stronger than the design supports.

Acceptable alternatives: A different evidence-based judgement is acceptable when it accurately uses the supplied data and Psychology.

Do not credit by itself: Summarises the dossier without integrating evidence, mechanism and methodological limits.

Integrated response (2 marks)

Recommends an ethical, collaborative and evidence-proportionate next step.

Acceptable alternatives: A different evidence-based judgement is acceptable when it accurately uses the supplied data and Psychology.

Do not credit by itself: Summarises the dossier without integrating evidence, mechanism and methodological limits.

Holistic marking bands

MarksDescriptor
9-10Builds a coherent learning, biopsychosocial and intervention analysis; weighs the numerical and design evidence precisely; rejects every unsupported claim; and proposes ethical proportionate practice.
7-8Integrates accurate mechanisms with the main results and limitations and reaches a well-supported qualified decision, with only minor omissions.
5-6Uses relevant concepts and some study evidence but leaves important mechanism, comparison or ethical links underdeveloped.
3-4Describes selected concepts or outcomes but provides limited integration and overstates at least one causal or universal claim.
1-2Offers one or two relevant statements with little application to the supplied evidence.
0Provides no creditable response to the virtual-reality phobia evidence.

Diagnostic Checklist

TopicQuestionsMarksMarks LostAction
Nervous system and stress A1-A2, A7, A11-A12, A17, A25, A35-A37, B1-B2 27 ___ Review neural communication, plasticity, stress models, coping and gut-brain processes.
Learning and memory A3-A4, A8, A15, A19, A21-A22, A27, A29, A38, B3-B4 30 ___ Review conditioning, observational learning, memory stores and systems, mnemonics and evidence evaluation.
Sleep and consciousness A5, A9-A10, A13-A14, A18, A23-A24, A28, A39, B5-B6 27 ___ Review sleep measurement, stages, rhythms, deprivation, disorders and interventions.
Mental wellbeing and specific phobia A6, A16, A26, A31-A33, B7 14 ___ Review the wellbeing continuum, protective factors, phobia development and evidence-based interventions.
Scientific inquiry, ethics and community governance A20, A30, A34, A40, B8-B9 22 ___ Review validity, reproducibility, ethical safeguards, evidence calibration and self-determination.

What is included

Question and Answer Book questions (120 marks)

Worked solutions and marking guidance shown online

Diagnostic checklist shown online

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What is included in Psychology Units 3&4 Free Online - Pack 0?

Pack 0 includes one full-length showcase paper, worked solutions, marking guidance and diagnostic checklists, all shown online.

Is Pack 0 really free?

Yes. Pack 0 can be read online without checkout or a monthly subscription.

Can I download Pack 0 as a PDF?

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