Skill Align VCE Chemistry Units 3&4 Practice Examination - 2026 Edition, Pack 0
An original urban microgrid, green-ammonia and circular-medicine examination aligned to the current VCE Chemistry assessment contract.
- Paper
- Question and Answer Book
- Reading
- 15 minutes
- Writing
- 2 hours 30 minutes
- Assessment
- 120 marks
A 2026 VCE Chemistry Data Book is supplied. Approved basic stationery and one scientific calculator may be used. Answer every question.
Section A - Multiple-choice questions
Answer all 30 questions. Select the correct or best answer. Each question is worth 1 mark.
Question 1
1 mark- +2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹
- -161 kJ mol⁻¹
- -6.42 × 10² kJ mol⁻¹
- -2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹
Question 2
1 mark- every carbon atom in the methane came from the atmosphere this year.
- combustion produces no carbon dioxide.
- the organic feedstock is replenished on a human timescale.
- the digester requires no external energy.
Question 3
1 mark- electrons are consumed and the electrode is the cathode.
- electrons are produced and the electrode is the anode.
- anions are oxidised and the electrode gains mass.
- Ni²⁺ gains electrons and deposits as Ni(s).
Question 4
1 mark- 24.0%
- 133%
- 4.50%
- 75.0%
Question 5
1 mark- 0 to -3.
- -3 to 0.
- +3 to 0.
- -3 to +2.
Question 6
1 mark- 2.00 mol
- 0.500 mol
- 1.00 mol
- 49.6 mol
Question 7
1 mark- towards ammonia because the product side has fewer gas particles.
- towards reactants because collisions become less frequent.
- nowhere because pressure never affects equilibrium.
- towards ammonia because K increases.
Question 8
1 mark- increasing the equilibrium constant.
- making the forward reaction exothermic.
- providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy.
- increasing the energy of every collision.
Question 9
1 mark- 40.0 C
- 150 C
- 9.60 × 10³ C
- 2.40 × 10³ C
Question 10
1 mark- the average rate decreased as reactants were consumed.
- the activation energy doubled after 20.0 s.
- equilibrium was reached at exactly 20.0 s.
- the reaction had no activation-energy barrier.
Question 11
1 mark- form more products until Qc equals Kc.
- form more reactants until Kc decreases.
- remain unchanged because Qc and Kc have different units.
- stop both forward and reverse reactions.
Question 12
1 mark- 3.18 g
- 12.7 g
- 6.35 g
- 0.635 g
Question 13
1 mark- a carboxyl group.
- a carbon-carbon double bond.
- only carbon-carbon single bonds.
- an amide linkage.
Question 14
1 mark- ethanal.
- ethanoic acid only.
- ethene.
- ethyl ethanoate.
Question 15
1 mark- Amine and alkene groups
- Hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
- Carbonyl and methyl groups
- Ether and halo groups
Question 16
1 mark- an ionic tail and non-polar head.
- two ionic ends that dissolve grease covalently.
- a non-polar structure that is fully soluble in water.
- a non-polar tail that associates with grease and an ionic head that interacts with water.
Question 17
1 mark- condensation polymerisation that releases water.
- hydrolysis that forms alcohol monomers.
- addition polymerisation that opens the carbon-carbon double bond.
- oxidation that produces ester links.
Question 18
1 mark- it uses the greatest possible solvent volume.
- a large proportion of reactant atoms occur in the desired product.
- the percentage yield is exactly 100%, regardless of by-products.
- all reactants are renewable, regardless of waste.
Question 19
1 mark- area with the solvent volume.
- height with the column length alone.
- retention time with that of an authentic standard.
- width with the sample mass only.
Question 20
1 mark- 75.5
- 152
- 150
- 151
Question 21
1 mark- an O-H bond only.
- a C=C-H bond.
- an alkane C-C bond.
- a carbonyl bond.
Question 22
1 mark- two separate molecules.
- exactly two carbon atoms.
- two distinct chemical environments.
- two different oxidation states.
Question 23
1 mark- has a complementary shape and intermolecular interactions with active-site groups.
- forms metallic bonds with every amino acid.
- increases the primary structure length.
- removes all water from the enzyme.
Question 24
1 mark- one amino acid.
- three monosaccharides.
- one alkene only.
- three fatty-acid molecules.
Question 25
1 mark- Current may affect hydrogen production.
- Increasing current from 1.0 A to 3.0 A will increase the hydrogen volume collected in 10 minutes.
- Measure hydrogen at several currents.
- Why does electrolysis produce hydrogen?
Question 26
1 mark- The identity of the fuel
- The mass of water heated
- The measured temperature rise
- The calculated energy per gram
Question 27
1 mark- pour unused standards down the sink after dilution.
- omit blanks to reduce solvent use.
- contain and dispose of standards and extracts as chemical waste.
- publish site coordinates before seeking permission.
Question 28
1 mark- the readings have a small spread.
- the mean is reported to two decimal places.
- the probe has a systematic calibration offset.
- three readings were collected.
Question 29
1 mark- larger because heat loss raises water temperature.
- unchanged because enthalpy is conserved.
- zero for every exothermic fuel.
- smaller than the accepted magnitude.
Question 30
1 mark- clearly labelled axes with units and suitable uncertainty or error bars.
- a decorative trend line without data points.
- an axis break that hides low results.
- different unlabelled scales for each trial.
Section B - Short-answer and extended-response questions
Answer all questions. Show working and use chemically precise explanations. Section B is worth 90 marks.
Question 1
9 marksA library captures methane from a nearby digester. The following measurements are recorded during a combustion trial.
| Quantity | Measurement |
|---|---|
| Methane burnt | 0.840 g |
| Water heated | 500.0 g |
| Initial water temperature | 19.4 °C |
| Final water temperature | 31.8 °C |
Assume water absorbs all measured heat and c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹.
Question 2
9 marksA market microgrid tests Zn(s)|Zn²⁺(aq)||Ag⁺(aq)|Ag(s).
Standard reduction potentials are supplied in the Data Book.
Question 3
9 marksA precinct proposes a green-ammonia loop. Ammonia formation is exothermic. Two operating temperatures are compared.
| Temperature | Ammonia at equilibrium | Time to equilibrium |
|---|---|---|
| 450 °C | 18.0% | Longer |
| 500 °C | 13.5% | Shorter |
Question 4
9 marksAn electrolyser treats a purified chloride stream at 4.80 A for 35.0 minutes.
The anode reaction is 2Cl⁻(aq) → Cl₂(g) + 2e⁻ and F = 96 500 C mol⁻¹.
Question 5
9 marksA renewable coating pathway starts with dibromoalkane X, which has a primary C-Br group at each end. Treatment with aqueous hydroxide gives diol Y.
A second reaction produces dicarboxylic acid Z from Y.
Z reacts with propane-1,3-diol to form a linear polyester.
Question 6
9 marksA leaf extract contains candidate analgesic Q. Its mass spectrum has peaks at m/z 43 (64%), 77 (38%), 107 (52%) and 150 (100%). The peak at m/z 150 is identified as Q's singly charged molecular-ion peak.
| Absorption range or position | Appearance |
|---|---|
| 2500-3300 cm⁻¹ | Broad |
| 1712 cm⁻¹ | Strong |
Question 7
9 marksA rooftop phase-change store is tested over a melting and heat-delivery cycle.
| Transfer | Energy |
|---|---|
| Absorbed during melting | 7.20 MJ |
| Consumed by pumps and controls | 0.65 MJ |
| Delivered as useful heat | 5.85 MJ |
Question 8
9 marksA river-monitoring team measures solvent R by chromatography. The standards give the following calibration results.
| Concentration (mg L⁻¹) | Peak area (units) |
|---|---|
| 2.00 | 18 |
| 4.00 | 37 |
| 6.00 | 55 |
| 8.00 | 74 |
A diluted sample gives 46 units; the original sample was diluted by a factor of 5.00.
Question 9
8 marksStudents compare four salt hydrates as heat-bank materials. They measure temperature every 20 s during cooling, but use different sample masses and uninsulated beakers.
Question 10
10 marksA council must choose whether to pilot green ammonia for backup power. Electrolysis uses 52 kWh per kilogram of H₂.
Across the stated plant boundary, 71% of supplied hydrogen is retained in ammonia product and the remaining 29% is permanently purged or lost; no hydrogen is recycled.
The fuel system returns 38% of ammonia's chemical energy as electricity. Local air modelling is incomplete.
Worked Solutions And Marking Guide
Section A Question 1
Answer: -2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹
Combustion is exothermic and ΔH = -642/0.250 = -2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹.
Section A Question 2
Answer: the organic feedstock is replenished on a human timescale.
Renewability depends on replenishment of the biomass feedstock, not zero emissions.
Section A Question 3
Answer: electrons are produced and the electrode is the anode.
Oxidation occurs at the anode: Ni(s) → Ni²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻.
Section A Question 4
Answer: 75.0%
Efficiency = useful output/input × 100 = 13.5/18.0 × 100 = 75.0%.
Section A Question 5
Answer: -3 to 0.
Nitrogen in NH₃ is -3 and elemental N₂ is 0, so nitrogen is oxidised.
Section A Question 6
Answer: 2.00 mol
n = V/Vm = 49.6/24.8 = 2.00 mol.
Section A Question 7
Answer: towards ammonia because the product side has fewer gas particles.
Higher pressure favours the side with fewer moles of gas; K is unchanged at constant temperature.
Section A Question 8
Answer: providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy.
A catalyst lowers activation energy for both directions without changing K.
Section A Question 9
Answer: 2.40 × 10³ C
Q = It = 2.50 × (16.0 × 60) = 2.40 × 10³ C.
Section A Question 10
Answer: the average rate decreased as reactants were consumed.
Gas production per unit time falls, consistent with lower reactant concentration and fewer successful collisions.
Section A Question 11
Answer: form more products until Qc equals Kc.
When Qc < Kc the forward reaction is favoured until equilibrium is restored.
Section A Question 12
Answer: 6.35 g
The 2026 Data Book gives M(Cu) = 63.5 g mol⁻¹, so m = 0.100 × 63.5 = 6.35 g.
Section A Question 13
Answer: a carbon-carbon double bond.
Bromine adds across a C=C bond, removing its colour.
Section A Question 14
Answer: ethanal.
A primary alcohol oxidises first to an aldehyde, ethanal.
Section A Question 15
Answer: Hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
Ester links form by condensation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups.
Section A Question 16
Answer: a non-polar tail that associates with grease and an ionic head that interacts with water.
Amphipathic soap ions form micelles with tails in grease and heads exposed to water.
Section A Question 17
Answer: addition polymerisation that opens the carbon-carbon double bond.
Ethene monomers add as their C=C bonds open; no small molecule is eliminated.
Section A Question 18
Answer: a large proportion of reactant atoms occur in the desired product.
Atom economy compares formula mass incorporated into desired product with total reactant formula mass.
Section A Question 19
Answer: retention time with that of an authentic standard.
Matching retention times under the same HPLC conditions supports identity; calibrated peak area can be used quantitatively.
Section A Question 20
Answer: 151
For a singly charged molecular ion, m/z equals relative molecular mass.
Section A Question 21
Answer: a carbonyl bond.
C=O stretching typically gives a strong absorption around 1700 cm⁻¹.
Section A Question 22
Answer: two distinct chemical environments.
The number of signals corresponds to distinct proton environments.
Section A Question 23
Answer: has a complementary shape and intermolecular interactions with active-site groups.
Binding depends on complementary shape and suitable non-covalent interactions.
Section A Question 24
Answer: three fatty-acid molecules.
A triglyceride contains three ester links between glycerol and fatty-acid residues.
Section A Question 25
Answer: Increasing current from 1.0 A to 3.0 A will increase the hydrogen volume collected in 10 minutes.
The statement predicts a direction between defined measurable variables.
Section A Question 26
Answer: The mass of water heated
Holding water mass constant supports a valid comparison of energy transferred.
Section A Question 27
Answer: contain and dispose of standards and extracts as chemical waste.
Containment and authorised disposal reduce environmental release of active compounds.
Section A Question 28
Answer: the probe has a systematic calibration offset.
Precision describes repeatability; a calibration bias can shift all values from the true value.
Section A Question 29
Answer: smaller than the accepted magnitude.
Lost heat is not measured by the water, so the calculated energy released per mole is underestimated.
Section A Question 30
Answer: clearly labelled axes with units and suitable uncertainty or error bars.
Labels, units, points and uncertainty information make the evidence interpretable.
Section B Question 1
(a) Uses q = mcΔT with ΔT = 12.4 K. Calculates q = 2.59 × 10⁴ J. Reports 25.9 kJ to three significant figures.
Uses q = mcΔT with ΔT = 12.4 K. Calculates q = 2.59 × 10⁴ J. Reports 25.9 kJ to three significant figures.
(b) Calculates n(CH₄) = 0.840/16.0 = 0.0525 mol. Divides measured energy by amount to obtain 493 kJ mol⁻¹. Assigns the exothermic sign: ΔHc = -493 kJ mol⁻¹.
Calculates n(CH₄) = 0.840/16.0 = 0.0525 mol. Divides measured energy by amount to obtain 493 kJ mol⁻¹. Assigns the exothermic sign: ΔHc = -493 kJ mol⁻¹.
(c) Identifies heat transfer to the apparatus or surroundings as an unmeasured energy pathway. Explains that the loss makes the measured temperature rise and |ΔHc| too small. Proposes insulation, a lid or calibration of the calorimeter heat capacity as a targeted improvement.
Identifies heat transfer to the apparatus or surroundings as an unmeasured energy pathway. Explains that the loss makes the measured temperature rise and |ΔHc| too small. Proposes insulation, a lid or calibration of the calorimeter heat capacity as a targeted improvement.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Uses q = mcΔT with ΔT = 12.4 K.
Part a (1 mark)
Calculates q = 2.59 × 10⁴ J.
Part a (1 mark)
Reports 25.9 kJ to three significant figures.
Part b (1 mark)
Calculates n(CH₄) = 0.840/16.0 = 0.0525 mol.
Part b (1 mark)
Divides measured energy by amount to obtain 493 kJ mol⁻¹.
Part b (1 mark)
Assigns the exothermic sign: ΔHc = -493 kJ mol⁻¹.
Part c (1 mark)
Identifies heat transfer to the apparatus or surroundings as an unmeasured energy pathway.
Part c (1 mark)
Explains that the loss makes the measured temperature rise and |ΔHc| too small.
Part c (1 mark)
Proposes insulation, a lid or calibration of the calorimeter heat capacity as a targeted improvement.
Section B Question 2
(a) Balances the oxidation species and charge: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Balances the reduction species and charge: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag; accepts any consistent multiple. Includes correct states in both half-equations: Zn(s), Zn²⁺(aq), Ag⁺(aq) and Ag(s).
Balances the oxidation species and charge: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Balances the reduction species and charge: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag; accepts any consistent multiple. Includes correct states in both half-equations: Zn(s), Zn²⁺(aq), Ag⁺(aq) and Ag(s).
(b) Uses E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode. Obtains E°cell = +1.56 V. Writes Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s).
Uses E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode. Obtains E°cell = +1.56 V. Writes Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s).
(c) States that electrons travel through the external circuit from zinc to silver. Explains that anions migrate towards the zinc half-cell to counter accumulating Zn²⁺. Explains that cations migrate towards the silver half-cell as Ag⁺ is consumed.
States that electrons travel through the external circuit from zinc to silver. Explains that anions migrate towards the zinc half-cell to counter accumulating Zn²⁺. Explains that cations migrate towards the silver half-cell as Ag⁺ is consumed.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Balances the oxidation species and charge: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻.
Part a (1 mark)
Balances the reduction species and charge: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag; accepts any consistent multiple.
Part a (1 mark)
Includes correct states in both half-equations: Zn(s), Zn²⁺(aq), Ag⁺(aq) and Ag(s).
Part b (1 mark)
Uses E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode.
Part b (1 mark)
Obtains E°cell = +1.56 V.
Part b (1 mark)
Writes Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s).
Part c (1 mark)
States that electrons travel through the external circuit from zinc to silver.
Part c (1 mark)
Explains that anions migrate towards the zinc half-cell to counter accumulating Zn²⁺.
Part c (1 mark)
Explains that cations migrate towards the silver half-cell as Ag⁺ is consumed.
Section B Question 3
(a) Explains that higher temperature increases the fraction of collisions above activation energy. Links the faster approach at 500 °C to increased successful-collision frequency. Uses Le Châtelier's principle to explain the lower ammonia yield at higher temperature for an exothermic forward reaction.
Explains that higher temperature increases the fraction of collisions above activation energy. Links the faster approach at 500 °C to increased successful-collision frequency. Uses Le Châtelier's principle to explain the lower ammonia yield at higher temperature for an exothermic forward reaction.
(b) States that the catalyst provides a lower-activation-energy pathway. Recognises that forward and reverse reaction rates are both increased. Concludes that K and equilibrium composition are unchanged at a fixed temperature.
States that the catalyst provides a lower-activation-energy pathway. Recognises that forward and reverse reaction rates are both increased. Concludes that K and equilibrium composition are unchanged at a fixed temperature.
(c) Selects a temperature or staged process that balances rate and equilibrium yield. Uses both the 18.0% and 13.5% observations in the justification. Identifies an additional process consideration, such as energy demand or product removal/recycling.
Selects a temperature or staged process that balances rate and equilibrium yield. Uses both the 18.0% and 13.5% observations in the justification. Identifies an additional process consideration, such as energy demand or product removal/recycling.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Explains that higher temperature increases the fraction of collisions above activation energy.
Part a (1 mark)
Links the faster approach at 500 °C to increased successful-collision frequency.
Part a (1 mark)
Uses Le Châtelier's principle to explain the lower ammonia yield at higher temperature for an exothermic forward reaction.
Part b (1 mark)
States that the catalyst provides a lower-activation-energy pathway.
Part b (1 mark)
Recognises that forward and reverse reaction rates are both increased.
Part b (1 mark)
Concludes that K and equilibrium composition are unchanged at a fixed temperature.
Part c (1 mark)
Selects a temperature or staged process that balances rate and equilibrium yield.
Part c (1 mark)
Uses both the 18.0% and 13.5% observations in the justification.
Part c (1 mark)
Identifies an additional process consideration, such as energy demand or product removal/recycling.
Section B Question 4
(a) Converts 35.0 min to 2100 s. Calculates Q = It = 1.008 × 10⁴ C. Calculates n(e⁻) = Q/F = 0.104 mol.
Converts 35.0 min to 2100 s. Calculates Q = It = 1.008 × 10⁴ C. Calculates n(e⁻) = Q/F = 0.104 mol.
(b) Uses the two-electron stoichiometry to obtain n(Cl₂) = 0.0522 mol. Uses Vm = 24.8 L mol⁻¹ from the Data Book. Obtains V(Cl₂) = 1.29 L to three significant figures.
Uses the two-electron stoichiometry to obtain n(Cl₂) = 0.0522 mol. Uses Vm = 24.8 L mol⁻¹ from the Data Book. Obtains V(Cl₂) = 1.29 L to three significant figures.
(c) Requires local exhaust or a sealed gas-collection system because chlorine is toxic by inhalation. Requires compatible eye/skin protection because electrolyte and chlorine products are corrosive or irritating. Requires power isolation before adjustment to control electrical and chemical exposure.
Requires local exhaust or a sealed gas-collection system because chlorine is toxic by inhalation. Requires compatible eye/skin protection because electrolyte and chlorine products are corrosive or irritating. Requires power isolation before adjustment to control electrical and chemical exposure.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Converts 35.0 min to 2100 s.
Part a (1 mark)
Calculates Q = It = 1.008 × 10⁴ C.
Part a (1 mark)
Calculates n(e⁻) = Q/F = 0.104 mol.
Part b (1 mark)
Uses the two-electron stoichiometry to obtain n(Cl₂) = 0.0522 mol.
Part b (1 mark)
Uses Vm = 24.8 L mol⁻¹ from the Data Book.
Part b (1 mark)
Obtains V(Cl₂) = 1.29 L to three significant figures.
Part c (1 mark)
Requires local exhaust or a sealed gas-collection system because chlorine is toxic by inhalation.
Part c (1 mark)
Requires compatible eye/skin protection because electrolyte and chlorine products are corrosive or irritating.
Part c (1 mark)
Requires power isolation before adjustment to control electrical and chemical exposure.
Section B Question 5
(a) Identifies X to Y as substitution of bromine by hydroxyl groups. Identifies Y to Z as oxidation of primary alcohol groups to carboxylic acids. Identifies a suitable oxidising reagent, such as acidified potassium dichromate or acidified potassium permanganate.
Identifies X to Y as substitution of bromine by hydroxyl groups. Identifies Y to Z as oxidation of primary alcohol groups to carboxylic acids. Identifies a suitable oxidising reagent, such as acidified potassium dichromate or acidified potassium permanganate.
(b) Identifies condensation polymerisation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups. States that ester linkages form in the polymer backbone. States that a small molecule such as water is eliminated during link formation.
Identifies condensation polymerisation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups. States that ester linkages form in the polymer backbone. States that a small molecule such as water is eliminated during link formation.
(c) Evaluates whether the feedstock is renewable while noting that renewability alone does not ensure low impact. Evaluates atom economy or by-product formation across substitution, oxidation and condensation. Identifies solvent, oxidant, energy or end-of-life evidence needed before claiming improved sustainability.
Evaluates whether the feedstock is renewable while noting that renewability alone does not ensure low impact. Evaluates atom economy or by-product formation across substitution, oxidation and condensation. Identifies solvent, oxidant, energy or end-of-life evidence needed before claiming improved sustainability.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Identifies X to Y as substitution of bromine by hydroxyl groups.
Part a (1 mark)
Identifies Y to Z as oxidation of primary alcohol groups to carboxylic acids.
Part a (1 mark)
Identifies a suitable oxidising reagent, such as acidified potassium dichromate or acidified potassium permanganate.
Part b (1 mark)
Identifies condensation polymerisation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups.
Part b (1 mark)
States that ester linkages form in the polymer backbone.
Part b (1 mark)
States that a small molecule such as water is eliminated during link formation.
Part c (1 mark)
Evaluates whether the feedstock is renewable while noting that renewability alone does not ensure low impact.
Part c (1 mark)
Evaluates atom economy or by-product formation across substitution, oxidation and condensation.
Part c (1 mark)
Identifies solvent, oxidant, energy or end-of-life evidence needed before claiming improved sustainability.
Section B Question 6
(a) Uses m/z 150 as the molecular-ion evidence for Mr approximately 150. Uses the broad 2500-3300 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carboxylic-acid O-H environment. Uses the 1712 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carbonyl group.
Uses m/z 150 as the molecular-ion evidence for Mr approximately 150. Uses the broad 2500-3300 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carboxylic-acid O-H environment. Uses the 1712 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carbonyl group.
(b) Distinguishes structural identification from pharmacological effect. States that dose-response or target-binding evidence is required. Notes that extract components or isomers may confound attribution without purification.
Distinguishes structural identification from pharmacological effect. States that dose-response or target-binding evidence is required. Notes that extract components or isomers may confound attribution without purification.
(c) Separates the extract chromatographically and compares retention with an authentic standard. Collects a complementary spectrum such as NMR for the isolated peak. Tests a concentration series with positive, negative and solvent controls before making an activity claim.
Separates the extract chromatographically and compares retention with an authentic standard. Collects a complementary spectrum such as NMR for the isolated peak. Tests a concentration series with positive, negative and solvent controls before making an activity claim.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Uses m/z 150 as the molecular-ion evidence for Mr approximately 150.
Part a (1 mark)
Uses the broad 2500-3300 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carboxylic-acid O-H environment.
Part a (1 mark)
Uses the 1712 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carbonyl group.
Part b (1 mark)
Distinguishes structural identification from pharmacological effect.
Part b (1 mark)
States that dose-response or target-binding evidence is required.
Part b (1 mark)
Notes that extract components or isomers may confound attribution without purification.
Part c (1 mark)
Separates the extract chromatographically and compares retention with an authentic standard.
Part c (1 mark)
Collects a complementary spectrum such as NMR for the isolated peak.
Part c (1 mark)
Tests a concentration series with positive, negative and solvent controls before making an activity claim.
Section B Question 7
(a) Adds stored and auxiliary inputs to obtain 7.85 MJ. Uses efficiency = useful output/total input × 100. Obtains 74.5% to three significant figures.
Adds stored and auxiliary inputs to obtain 7.85 MJ. Uses efficiency = useful output/total input × 100. Obtains 74.5% to three significant figures.
(b) Defines capacity as the maximum amount of energy the system can store. Defines efficiency as the proportion of input energy recovered usefully. Explains that a high-capacity device can still have a low efficiency.
Defines capacity as the maximum amount of energy the system can store. Defines efficiency as the proportion of input energy recovered usefully. Explains that a high-capacity device can still have a low efficiency.
(c) Identifies a relevant common basis such as delivered energy, lifetime emissions or response time. States that the supplied data establish only the thermal store's round-trip efficiency. Requests matched battery data and functional requirements before recommending a technology.
Identifies a relevant common basis such as delivered energy, lifetime emissions or response time. States that the supplied data establish only the thermal store's round-trip efficiency. Requests matched battery data and functional requirements before recommending a technology.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Adds stored and auxiliary inputs to obtain 7.85 MJ.
Part a (1 mark)
Uses efficiency = useful output/total input × 100.
Part a (1 mark)
Obtains 74.5% to three significant figures.
Part b (1 mark)
Defines capacity as the maximum amount of energy the system can store.
Part b (1 mark)
Defines efficiency as the proportion of input energy recovered usefully.
Part b (1 mark)
Explains that a high-capacity device can still have a low efficiency.
Part c (1 mark)
Identifies a relevant common basis such as delivered energy, lifetime emissions or response time.
Part c (1 mark)
States that the supplied data establish only the thermal store's round-trip efficiency.
Part c (1 mark)
Requests matched battery data and functional requirements before recommending a technology.
Section B Question 8
(a) Recognises that 46 units lies between the 4.00 and 6.00 mg L⁻¹ standards. Interpolates a diluted concentration of approximately 5.0 mg L⁻¹. Reports the estimate with units and sensible precision.
Recognises that 46 units lies between the 4.00 and 6.00 mg L⁻¹ standards. Interpolates a diluted concentration of approximately 5.0 mg L⁻¹. Reports the estimate with units and sensible precision.
(b) Uses c(original) = 5.00 × c(diluted). Calculates approximately 25 mg L⁻¹ in the original sample. Explains that dilution preserves the amount of solvent R while increasing solution volume five-fold, so the diluted concentration is one-fifth of the original.
Uses c(original) = 5.00 × c(diluted). Calculates approximately 25 mg L⁻¹ in the original sample. Explains that dilution preserves the amount of solvent R while increasing solution volume five-fold, so the diluted concentration is one-fifth of the original.
(c) Observes that peak area is approximately linear over the stated range. Notes that no replicate spread or blank response is supplied. Proposes replicate standards, a reagent blank or a best-fit regression with uncertainty.
Observes that peak area is approximately linear over the stated range. Notes that no replicate spread or blank response is supplied. Proposes replicate standards, a reagent blank or a best-fit regression with uncertainty.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Recognises that 46 units lies between the 4.00 and 6.00 mg L⁻¹ standards.
Part a (1 mark)
Interpolates a diluted concentration of approximately 5.0 mg L⁻¹.
Part a (1 mark)
Reports the estimate with units and sensible precision.
Part b (1 mark)
Uses c(original) = 5.00 × c(diluted).
Part b (1 mark)
Calculates approximately 25 mg L⁻¹ in the original sample.
Part b (1 mark)
Explains that dilution preserves the amount of solvent R while increasing solution volume five-fold, so the diluted concentration is one-fifth of the original.
Part c (1 mark)
Observes that peak area is approximately linear over the stated range.
Part c (1 mark)
Notes that no replicate spread or blank response is supplied.
Part c (1 mark)
Proposes replicate standards, a reagent blank or a best-fit regression with uncertainty.
Section B Question 9
(a) States an aim comparing heat retention by defined salt hydrates under matched conditions. Predicts which measurable cooling behaviour would indicate greater heat retention. Names temperature change over a defined time as the response variable.
States an aim comparing heat retention by defined salt hydrates under matched conditions. Predicts which measurable cooling behaviour would indicate greater heat retention. Names temperature change over a defined time as the response variable.
(b) Requires equal sample amount or thermal capacity and identical containers. Requires controlled initial temperature, ambient conditions and measurement interval. Includes independent repeats and comparison of means with spread.
Requires equal sample amount or thermal capacity and identical containers. Requires controlled initial temperature, ambient conditions and measurement interval. Includes independent repeats and comparison of means with spread.
(c) Links unequal mass to unequal stored thermal energy. Links uninsulated beakers to uncontrolled heat exchange.
Links unequal mass to unequal stored thermal energy. Links uninsulated beakers to uncontrolled heat exchange.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
States an aim comparing heat retention by defined salt hydrates under matched conditions.
Part a (1 mark)
Predicts which measurable cooling behaviour would indicate greater heat retention.
Part a (1 mark)
Names temperature change over a defined time as the response variable.
Part b (1 mark)
Requires equal sample amount or thermal capacity and identical containers.
Part b (1 mark)
Requires controlled initial temperature, ambient conditions and measurement interval.
Part b (1 mark)
Includes independent repeats and comparison of means with spread.
Part c (1 mark)
Links unequal mass to unequal stored thermal energy.
Part c (1 mark)
Links uninsulated beakers to uncontrolled heat exchange.
Section B Question 10
(a) Traces electricity through electrolysis, ammonia synthesis and reconversion rather than treating one step as the whole system. Uses the stated 71% net hydrogen utilisation and 38% conversion figures to identify substantial cumulative losses within the defined no-recycle boundary. Recognises that storage and transport benefits may still justify lower round-trip efficiency for backup use.
Traces electricity through electrolysis, ammonia synthesis and reconversion rather than treating one step as the whole system. Uses the stated 71% net hydrogen utilisation and 38% conversion figures to identify substantial cumulative losses within the defined no-recycle boundary. Recognises that storage and transport benefits may still justify lower round-trip efficiency for backup use.
(b) Distinguishes renewable electricity input from guaranteed lifecycle sustainability. Identifies ammonia toxicity, leakage or nitrogen-oxide formation as a risk requiring controls. States that incomplete local air modelling prevents a confident community-exposure conclusion.
Distinguishes renewable electricity input from guaranteed lifecycle sustainability. Identifies ammonia toxicity, leakage or nitrogen-oxide formation as a risk requiring controls. States that incomplete local air modelling prevents a confident community-exposure conclusion.
(c) Makes a conditional pilot, defer or reject recommendation consistent with the evidence. Requires baseline and operating measurements for energy use and ammonia leakage. Requires nitrogen-oxide or local air-quality monitoring with a stated review trigger. Includes a stop or redesign condition if safety or efficiency thresholds are not met.
Makes a conditional pilot, defer or reject recommendation consistent with the evidence. Requires baseline and operating measurements for energy use and ammonia leakage. Requires nitrogen-oxide or local air-quality monitoring with a stated review trigger. Includes a stop or redesign condition if safety or efficiency thresholds are not met.
Detailed marking criteria
Part a (1 mark)
Traces electricity through electrolysis, ammonia synthesis and reconversion rather than treating one step as the whole system.
Part a (1 mark)
Uses the stated 71% net hydrogen utilisation and 38% conversion figures to identify substantial cumulative losses within the defined no-recycle boundary.
Part a (1 mark)
Recognises that storage and transport benefits may still justify lower round-trip efficiency for backup use.
Part b (1 mark)
Distinguishes renewable electricity input from guaranteed lifecycle sustainability.
Part b (1 mark)
Identifies ammonia toxicity, leakage or nitrogen-oxide formation as a risk requiring controls.
Part b (1 mark)
States that incomplete local air modelling prevents a confident community-exposure conclusion.
Part c (1 mark)
Makes a conditional pilot, defer or reject recommendation consistent with the evidence.
Part c (1 mark)
Requires baseline and operating measurements for energy use and ammonia leakage.
Part c (1 mark)
Requires nitrogen-oxide or local air-quality monitoring with a stated review trigger.
Part c (1 mark)
Includes a stop or redesign condition if safety or efficiency thresholds are not met.
Diagnostic Checklist
| Topic | Questions | Marks | Marks Lost | Action |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Energy options | A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, B1, B2, B7 | 33 | ___ | Review fuels, thermochemistry, redox and electrochemical cells. |
| Optimising rate and yield | A7, A8, A9, A10, A11, A12, B3, B4 | 24 | ___ | Review collision theory, catalysts, equilibrium, industrial conditions and electrolysis. |
| Organic categorisation and synthesis | A13, A14, A15, A16, A17, A18, B5 | 15 | ___ | Review structures, nomenclature, functional groups, reactions, pathways and green chemistry. |
| Organic analysis and use | A19, A20, A21, A22, A23, A24, B6, B8 | 24 | ___ | Review spectroscopy, chromatography, biomolecules, medicines and structure-property reasoning. |
| Scientific inquiry | A25, A26, A27, A28, A29, A30, B9, B10 | 24 | ___ | Review hypotheses, safe methods, data treatment, uncertainty, evaluation and evidence-based conclusions. |