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VCE Chemistry Units 3&4 — Free Online Pack 0

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VCE Units 3&4 End-of-Year Examination 2026 Edition - Pack 0 v2.0
Updated 7 Oct 2026

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VCE Chemistry Units 3&4

40 questions

120 marks

Reading: 15 minutes · Writing: 2 hours 30 minutesFree online paper · no PDF download or checkout

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  • how-are-organic-compounds-analysed-and-used 24 marks · 8 questions
  • how-are-organic-compounds-categorised-and-synthesised 15 marks · 7 questions
  • how-can-rate-and-yield-of-chemical-reactions-be-optimised 24 marks · 8 questions
  • how-is-scientific-inquiry-used-to-investigate-sustainable-production-of-energy-or-materials 24 marks · 8 questions
  • what-are-current-and-future-options-for-supplying-energy 33 marks · 9 questions

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Skill Align VCE Chemistry Units 3&4 Practice Examination - 2026 Edition, Pack 0

An original urban microgrid, green-ammonia and circular-medicine examination aligned to the current VCE Chemistry assessment contract.

Paper
Question and Answer Book
Reading
15 minutes
Writing
2 hours 30 minutes
Assessment
120 marks

A 2026 VCE Chemistry Data Book is supplied. Approved basic stationery and one scientific calculator may be used. Answer every question.

Section A - Multiple-choice questions

Answer all 30 questions. Select the correct or best answer. Each question is worth 1 mark.

Question 1

1 mark
A tram depot burns 0.250 mol of biodiesel surrogate and releases 642 kJ. What is the molar enthalpy of combustion?
  1. +2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹
  2. -161 kJ mol⁻¹
  3. -6.42 × 10² kJ mol⁻¹
  4. -2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹

Question 2

1 mark
Methane collected from anaerobic digestion of laneway food waste is classified as a renewable fuel when
  1. every carbon atom in the methane came from the atmosphere this year.
  2. combustion produces no carbon dioxide.
  3. the organic feedstock is replenished on a human timescale.
  4. the digester requires no external energy.

Question 3

1 mark
In a galvanic cell, Ni(s) is oxidised to Ni²⁺(aq). At the nickel electrode
  1. electrons are consumed and the electrode is the cathode.
  2. electrons are produced and the electrode is the anode.
  3. anions are oxidised and the electrode gains mass.
  4. Ni²⁺ gains electrons and deposits as Ni(s).

Question 4

1 mark
A heat bank stores 18.0 MJ and later supplies 13.5 MJ. Its energy efficiency is
  1. 24.0%
  2. 133%
  3. 4.50%
  4. 75.0%

Question 5

1 mark
When ammonia is used in a fuel cell and nitrogen forms, the oxidation number of nitrogen changes from
  1. 0 to -3.
  2. -3 to 0.
  3. +3 to 0.
  4. -3 to +2.

Question 6

1 mark
At SLC, what amount of hydrogen occupies 49.6 L if the molar volume is 24.8 L mol⁻¹?
  1. 2.00 mol
  2. 0.500 mol
  3. 1.00 mol
  4. 49.6 mol

Question 7

1 mark
For N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), increasing pressure at constant temperature shifts equilibrium
  1. towards ammonia because the product side has fewer gas particles.
  2. towards reactants because collisions become less frequent.
  3. nowhere because pressure never affects equilibrium.
  4. towards ammonia because K increases.

Question 8

1 mark
A catalyst in an exhaust-treatment reactor increases reaction rate by
  1. increasing the equilibrium constant.
  2. making the forward reaction exothermic.
  3. providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy.
  4. increasing the energy of every collision.

Question 9

1 mark
What charge passes through an electrolytic cell carrying 2.50 A for 16.0 minutes?
  1. 40.0 C
  2. 150 C
  3. 9.60 × 10³ C
  4. 2.40 × 10³ C

Question 10

1 mark
A reaction produces 36.0 mL gas in the first 20.0 s and 18.0 mL in the next 20.0 s. The result most directly shows that
  1. the average rate decreased as reactants were consumed.
  2. the activation energy doubled after 20.0 s.
  3. equilibrium was reached at exactly 20.0 s.
  4. the reaction had no activation-energy barrier.

Question 11

1 mark
For an equilibrium mixture, Qc is smaller than Kc. The system will initially
  1. form more products until Qc equals Kc.
  2. form more reactants until Kc decreases.
  3. remain unchanged because Qc and Kc have different units.
  4. stop both forward and reverse reactions.

Question 12

1 mark
During copper electrorefining, 0.100 mol Cu²⁺ gains electrons. What mass of copper deposits?
  1. 3.18 g
  2. 12.7 g
  3. 6.35 g
  4. 0.635 g

Question 13

1 mark
A hydrocarbon obtained from orange peel rapidly decolourises bromine solution. This observation supports the presence of
  1. a carboxyl group.
  2. a carbon-carbon double bond.
  3. only carbon-carbon single bonds.
  4. an amide linkage.

Question 14

1 mark
Controlled oxidation of ethanol first produces
  1. ethanal.
  2. ethanoic acid only.
  3. ethene.
  4. ethyl ethanoate.

Question 15

1 mark
Which two functional groups react during condensation polymerisation to form a polyester?
  1. Amine and alkene groups
  2. Hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
  3. Carbonyl and methyl groups
  4. Ether and halo groups

Question 16

1 mark
A soap ion removes grease from water because it has
  1. an ionic tail and non-polar head.
  2. two ionic ends that dissolve grease covalently.
  3. a non-polar structure that is fully soluble in water.
  4. a non-polar tail that associates with grease and an ionic head that interacts with water.

Question 17

1 mark
Poly(ethene) forms from bioethene by
  1. condensation polymerisation that releases water.
  2. hydrolysis that forms alcohol monomers.
  3. addition polymerisation that opens the carbon-carbon double bond.
  4. oxidation that produces ester links.

Question 18

1 mark
A synthesis has high atom economy when
  1. it uses the greatest possible solvent volume.
  2. a large proportion of reactant atoms occur in the desired product.
  3. the percentage yield is exactly 100%, regardless of by-products.
  4. all reactants are renewable, regardless of waste.

Question 19

1 mark
In HPLC under fixed conditions, identity is most directly supported by comparing a peak's
  1. area with the solvent volume.
  2. height with the column length alone.
  3. retention time with that of an authentic standard.
  4. width with the sample mass only.

Question 20

1 mark
A mass spectrum has a molecular-ion peak at m/z 151 for a singly charged molecule. The relative molecular mass is
  1. 75.5
  2. 152
  3. 150
  4. 151

Question 21

1 mark
A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ most strongly indicates
  1. an O-H bond only.
  2. a C=C-H bond.
  3. an alkane C-C bond.
  4. a carbonyl bond.

Question 22

1 mark
The ¹H NMR spectrum of a pure compound has two signals. This means its hydrogen atoms occupy
  1. two separate molecules.
  2. exactly two carbon atoms.
  3. two distinct chemical environments.
  4. two different oxidation states.

Question 23

1 mark
A medicine inhibits an enzyme by occupying its active site. The most direct molecular explanation is that the medicine
  1. has a complementary shape and intermolecular interactions with active-site groups.
  2. forms metallic bonds with every amino acid.
  3. increases the primary structure length.
  4. removes all water from the enzyme.

Question 24

1 mark
Complete hydrolysis of a triglyceride produces glycerol and
  1. one amino acid.
  2. three monosaccharides.
  3. one alkene only.
  4. three fatty-acid molecules.

Question 25

1 mark
Which is a testable directional hypothesis for a rooftop electrolysis trial?
  1. Current may affect hydrogen production.
  2. Increasing current from 1.0 A to 3.0 A will increase the hydrogen volume collected in 10 minutes.
  3. Measure hydrogen at several currents.
  4. Why does electrolysis produce hydrogen?

Question 26

1 mark
When comparing two fuels in simple calorimeters, which variable should be held constant?
  1. The identity of the fuel
  2. The mass of water heated
  3. The measured temperature rise
  4. The calculated energy per gram

Question 27

1 mark
Before testing trace pharmaceuticals in reclaimed water, the most important environmental control is to
  1. pour unused standards down the sink after dilution.
  2. omit blanks to reduce solvent use.
  3. contain and dispose of standards and extracts as chemical waste.
  4. publish site coordinates before seeking permission.

Question 28

1 mark
Temperature readings of 22.41, 22.42 and 22.41 °C are precise but may still be inaccurate if
  1. the readings have a small spread.
  2. the mean is reported to two decimal places.
  3. the probe has a systematic calibration offset.
  4. three readings were collected.

Question 29

1 mark
A student ignores heat loss when calculating a fuel's molar enthalpy of combustion. The experimental magnitude is most likely
  1. larger because heat loss raises water temperature.
  2. unchanged because enthalpy is conserved.
  3. zero for every exothermic fuel.
  4. smaller than the accepted magnitude.

Question 30

1 mark
A graph of catalyst mass against initial rate should communicate uncertainty most effectively by including
  1. clearly labelled axes with units and suitable uncertainty or error bars.
  2. a decorative trend line without data points.
  3. an axis break that hides low results.
  4. different unlabelled scales for each trial.

Section B - Short-answer and extended-response questions

Answer all questions. Show working and use chemically precise explanations. Section B is worth 90 marks.

Question 1

9 marks

A library captures methane from a nearby digester. The following measurements are recorded during a combustion trial.

Methane calorimetry measurements
QuantityMeasurement
Methane burnt0.840 g
Water heated500.0 g
Initial water temperature19.4 °C
Final water temperature31.8 °C

Assume water absorbs all measured heat and c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹.

(a) 3 marks
Calculate the energy absorbed by the water.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the experimental molar enthalpy of combustion of methane.
(c) 3 marks
Evaluate one limitation and propose a targeted improvement.

Question 2

9 marks

A market microgrid tests Zn(s)|Zn²⁺(aq)||Ag⁺(aq)|Ag(s).

Standard reduction potentials are supplied in the Data Book.

Diagram Preview
cell apparatus external wire porous salt bridge Zn(s) in Zn²⁺(aq) Ag(s) in Ag⁺(aq)
(a) 3 marks
Write the oxidation and reduction half-equations with states.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the standard cell potential and spontaneous overall equation.
(c) 3 marks
Explain ion and electron movement while the cell operates.

Question 3

9 marks

A precinct proposes a green-ammonia loop. Ammonia formation is exothermic. Two operating temperatures are compared.

Reactor equilibrium trials
TemperatureAmmonia at equilibriumTime to equilibrium
450 °C18.0%Longer
500 °C13.5%Shorter
Graph Preview
18450 °C13.5500 °Creactor temperatureequilibrium ammonia (%)
(a) 3 marks
Explain the temperature effects on rate and equilibrium yield.
(b) 3 marks
Explain why an iron catalyst changes production rate but not equilibrium composition.
(c) 3 marks
Recommend an operating compromise using both temperature/yield observations and the rate information. Identify one additional process consideration before implementation.

Question 4

9 marks

An electrolyser treats a purified chloride stream at 4.80 A for 35.0 minutes.

The anode reaction is 2Cl⁻(aq) → Cl₂(g) + 2e⁻ and F = 96 500 C mol⁻¹.

(a) 3 marks
Calculate the amount of electrons transferred.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the amount and SLC volume of chlorine formed.
(c) 3 marks
State and justify three safety controls.

Question 5

9 marks

A renewable coating pathway starts with dibromoalkane X, which has a primary C-Br group at each end. Treatment with aqueous hydroxide gives diol Y.

A second reaction produces dicarboxylic acid Z from Y.

Z reacts with propane-1,3-diol to form a linear polyester.

(a) 3 marks
Name the reaction type in each of the first two steps and identify a suitable reagent for Y → Z.
(b) 3 marks
Describe formation of the polyester.
(c) 3 marks
Apply three green-chemistry criteria to the proposed pathway.

Question 6

9 marks

A leaf extract contains candidate analgesic Q. Its mass spectrum has peaks at m/z 43 (64%), 77 (38%), 107 (52%) and 150 (100%). The peak at m/z 150 is identified as Q's singly charged molecular-ion peak.

Infrared observations for Q
Absorption range or positionAppearance
2500-3300 cm⁻¹Broad
1712 cm⁻¹Strong
Graph Preview
6443387752107100150m/zrelative abundance
(a) 3 marks
Infer three pieces of information about Q from the spectra: its relative molecular mass and two structural features.
(b) 3 marks
Explain why the spectra do not by themselves prove biological activity.
(c) 3 marks
Propose a defensible confirmation sequence.

Question 7

9 marks

A rooftop phase-change store is tested over a melting and heat-delivery cycle.

Energy transfers over one cycle
TransferEnergy
Absorbed during melting7.20 MJ
Consumed by pumps and controls0.65 MJ
Delivered as useful heat5.85 MJ
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the round-trip efficiency using total energy input.
(b) 3 marks
Distinguish energy efficiency from energy capacity.
(c) 3 marks
Compare this store with a battery without overclaiming.

Question 8

9 marks

A river-monitoring team measures solvent R by chromatography. The standards give the following calibration results.

Solvent R calibration
Concentration (mg L⁻¹)Peak area (units)
2.0018
4.0037
6.0055
8.0074

A diluted sample gives 46 units; the original sample was diluted by a factor of 5.00.

(a) 3 marks
Estimate the concentration of the diluted sample.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the concentration in the original river sample. Explain why the dilution factor multiplies the diluted concentration.
(c) 3 marks
Evaluate calibration quality and one improvement.

Question 9

8 marks

Students compare four salt hydrates as heat-bank materials. They measure temperature every 20 s during cooling, but use different sample masses and uninsulated beakers.

(a) 3 marks
Formulate a suitable aim and directional prediction.
(b) 3 marks
Redesign the comparison for validity and reliability.
(c) 2 marks
Explain how the existing method limits interpretation.

Question 10

10 marks

A council must choose whether to pilot green ammonia for backup power. Electrolysis uses 52 kWh per kilogram of H₂.

Across the stated plant boundary, 71% of supplied hydrogen is retained in ammonia product and the remaining 29% is permanently purged or lost; no hydrogen is recycled.

The fuel system returns 38% of ammonia's chemical energy as electricity. Local air modelling is incomplete.

(a) 3 marks
Construct a chemically grounded energy argument.
(b) 3 marks
Evaluate environmental and safety evidence.
(c) 4 marks
Recommend a decision and monitoring rule.

VCE is administered by the Victorian Curriculum and Assessment Authority (VCAA). Skill Align is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with, authorised by, sponsored by, approved by or endorsed by VCAA or the Victorian Government.

Copyright (c) 2026 Skill Align. Free for personal, non-commercial online viewing at https://skillalign.au. You may share the Skill Align page link. Except as permitted by law or with Skill Align's prior written permission, the pack itself must not be resold, copied, redistributed, republished, automatically extracted, or uploaded to a question bank. All questions, scenarios, datasets, visuals, answers and marking guidance are original Skill Align content.

Worked Solutions And Marking Guide

Section A Question 1

Answer: -2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹

Combustion is exothermic and ΔH = -642/0.250 = -2.57 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹.

Section A Question 2

Answer: the organic feedstock is replenished on a human timescale.

Renewability depends on replenishment of the biomass feedstock, not zero emissions.

Section A Question 3

Answer: electrons are produced and the electrode is the anode.

Oxidation occurs at the anode: Ni(s) → Ni²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻.

Section A Question 4

Answer: 75.0%

Efficiency = useful output/input × 100 = 13.5/18.0 × 100 = 75.0%.

Section A Question 5

Answer: -3 to 0.

Nitrogen in NH₃ is -3 and elemental N₂ is 0, so nitrogen is oxidised.

Section A Question 6

Answer: 2.00 mol

n = V/Vm = 49.6/24.8 = 2.00 mol.

Section A Question 7

Answer: towards ammonia because the product side has fewer gas particles.

Higher pressure favours the side with fewer moles of gas; K is unchanged at constant temperature.

Section A Question 8

Answer: providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy.

A catalyst lowers activation energy for both directions without changing K.

Section A Question 9

Answer: 2.40 × 10³ C

Q = It = 2.50 × (16.0 × 60) = 2.40 × 10³ C.

Section A Question 10

Answer: the average rate decreased as reactants were consumed.

Gas production per unit time falls, consistent with lower reactant concentration and fewer successful collisions.

Section A Question 11

Answer: form more products until Qc equals Kc.

When Qc < Kc the forward reaction is favoured until equilibrium is restored.

Section A Question 12

Answer: 6.35 g

The 2026 Data Book gives M(Cu) = 63.5 g mol⁻¹, so m = 0.100 × 63.5 = 6.35 g.

Section A Question 13

Answer: a carbon-carbon double bond.

Bromine adds across a C=C bond, removing its colour.

Section A Question 14

Answer: ethanal.

A primary alcohol oxidises first to an aldehyde, ethanal.

Section A Question 15

Answer: Hydroxyl and carboxyl groups

Ester links form by condensation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups.

Section A Question 16

Answer: a non-polar tail that associates with grease and an ionic head that interacts with water.

Amphipathic soap ions form micelles with tails in grease and heads exposed to water.

Section A Question 17

Answer: addition polymerisation that opens the carbon-carbon double bond.

Ethene monomers add as their C=C bonds open; no small molecule is eliminated.

Section A Question 18

Answer: a large proportion of reactant atoms occur in the desired product.

Atom economy compares formula mass incorporated into desired product with total reactant formula mass.

Section A Question 19

Answer: retention time with that of an authentic standard.

Matching retention times under the same HPLC conditions supports identity; calibrated peak area can be used quantitatively.

Section A Question 20

Answer: 151

For a singly charged molecular ion, m/z equals relative molecular mass.

Section A Question 21

Answer: a carbonyl bond.

C=O stretching typically gives a strong absorption around 1700 cm⁻¹.

Section A Question 22

Answer: two distinct chemical environments.

The number of signals corresponds to distinct proton environments.

Section A Question 23

Answer: has a complementary shape and intermolecular interactions with active-site groups.

Binding depends on complementary shape and suitable non-covalent interactions.

Section A Question 24

Answer: three fatty-acid molecules.

A triglyceride contains three ester links between glycerol and fatty-acid residues.

Section A Question 25

Answer: Increasing current from 1.0 A to 3.0 A will increase the hydrogen volume collected in 10 minutes.

The statement predicts a direction between defined measurable variables.

Section A Question 26

Answer: The mass of water heated

Holding water mass constant supports a valid comparison of energy transferred.

Section A Question 27

Answer: contain and dispose of standards and extracts as chemical waste.

Containment and authorised disposal reduce environmental release of active compounds.

Section A Question 28

Answer: the probe has a systematic calibration offset.

Precision describes repeatability; a calibration bias can shift all values from the true value.

Section A Question 29

Answer: smaller than the accepted magnitude.

Lost heat is not measured by the water, so the calculated energy released per mole is underestimated.

Section A Question 30

Answer: clearly labelled axes with units and suitable uncertainty or error bars.

Labels, units, points and uncertainty information make the evidence interpretable.

Section B Question 1

(a) Uses q = mcΔT with ΔT = 12.4 K. Calculates q = 2.59 × 10⁴ J. Reports 25.9 kJ to three significant figures.

Uses q = mcΔT with ΔT = 12.4 K. Calculates q = 2.59 × 10⁴ J. Reports 25.9 kJ to three significant figures.

(b) Calculates n(CH₄) = 0.840/16.0 = 0.0525 mol. Divides measured energy by amount to obtain 493 kJ mol⁻¹. Assigns the exothermic sign: ΔHc = -493 kJ mol⁻¹.

Calculates n(CH₄) = 0.840/16.0 = 0.0525 mol. Divides measured energy by amount to obtain 493 kJ mol⁻¹. Assigns the exothermic sign: ΔHc = -493 kJ mol⁻¹.

(c) Identifies heat transfer to the apparatus or surroundings as an unmeasured energy pathway. Explains that the loss makes the measured temperature rise and |ΔHc| too small. Proposes insulation, a lid or calibration of the calorimeter heat capacity as a targeted improvement.

Identifies heat transfer to the apparatus or surroundings as an unmeasured energy pathway. Explains that the loss makes the measured temperature rise and |ΔHc| too small. Proposes insulation, a lid or calibration of the calorimeter heat capacity as a targeted improvement.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses q = mcΔT with ΔT = 12.4 K.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates q = 2.59 × 10⁴ J.

Part a (1 mark)

Reports 25.9 kJ to three significant figures.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates n(CH₄) = 0.840/16.0 = 0.0525 mol.

Part b (1 mark)

Divides measured energy by amount to obtain 493 kJ mol⁻¹.

Part b (1 mark)

Assigns the exothermic sign: ΔHc = -493 kJ mol⁻¹.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies heat transfer to the apparatus or surroundings as an unmeasured energy pathway.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that the loss makes the measured temperature rise and |ΔHc| too small.

Part c (1 mark)

Proposes insulation, a lid or calibration of the calorimeter heat capacity as a targeted improvement.

Section B Question 2

(a) Balances the oxidation species and charge: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Balances the reduction species and charge: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag; accepts any consistent multiple. Includes correct states in both half-equations: Zn(s), Zn²⁺(aq), Ag⁺(aq) and Ag(s).

Balances the oxidation species and charge: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Balances the reduction species and charge: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag; accepts any consistent multiple. Includes correct states in both half-equations: Zn(s), Zn²⁺(aq), Ag⁺(aq) and Ag(s).

(b) Uses E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode. Obtains E°cell = +1.56 V. Writes Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s).

Uses E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode. Obtains E°cell = +1.56 V. Writes Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s).

(c) States that electrons travel through the external circuit from zinc to silver. Explains that anions migrate towards the zinc half-cell to counter accumulating Zn²⁺. Explains that cations migrate towards the silver half-cell as Ag⁺ is consumed.

States that electrons travel through the external circuit from zinc to silver. Explains that anions migrate towards the zinc half-cell to counter accumulating Zn²⁺. Explains that cations migrate towards the silver half-cell as Ag⁺ is consumed.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Balances the oxidation species and charge: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻.

Part a (1 mark)

Balances the reduction species and charge: Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag; accepts any consistent multiple.

Part a (1 mark)

Includes correct states in both half-equations: Zn(s), Zn²⁺(aq), Ag⁺(aq) and Ag(s).

Part b (1 mark)

Uses E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains E°cell = +1.56 V.

Part b (1 mark)

Writes Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s).

Part c (1 mark)

States that electrons travel through the external circuit from zinc to silver.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that anions migrate towards the zinc half-cell to counter accumulating Zn²⁺.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that cations migrate towards the silver half-cell as Ag⁺ is consumed.

Section B Question 3

(a) Explains that higher temperature increases the fraction of collisions above activation energy. Links the faster approach at 500 °C to increased successful-collision frequency. Uses Le Châtelier's principle to explain the lower ammonia yield at higher temperature for an exothermic forward reaction.

Explains that higher temperature increases the fraction of collisions above activation energy. Links the faster approach at 500 °C to increased successful-collision frequency. Uses Le Châtelier's principle to explain the lower ammonia yield at higher temperature for an exothermic forward reaction.

(b) States that the catalyst provides a lower-activation-energy pathway. Recognises that forward and reverse reaction rates are both increased. Concludes that K and equilibrium composition are unchanged at a fixed temperature.

States that the catalyst provides a lower-activation-energy pathway. Recognises that forward and reverse reaction rates are both increased. Concludes that K and equilibrium composition are unchanged at a fixed temperature.

(c) Selects a temperature or staged process that balances rate and equilibrium yield. Uses both the 18.0% and 13.5% observations in the justification. Identifies an additional process consideration, such as energy demand or product removal/recycling.

Selects a temperature or staged process that balances rate and equilibrium yield. Uses both the 18.0% and 13.5% observations in the justification. Identifies an additional process consideration, such as energy demand or product removal/recycling.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that higher temperature increases the fraction of collisions above activation energy.

Part a (1 mark)

Links the faster approach at 500 °C to increased successful-collision frequency.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses Le Châtelier's principle to explain the lower ammonia yield at higher temperature for an exothermic forward reaction.

Part b (1 mark)

States that the catalyst provides a lower-activation-energy pathway.

Part b (1 mark)

Recognises that forward and reverse reaction rates are both increased.

Part b (1 mark)

Concludes that K and equilibrium composition are unchanged at a fixed temperature.

Part c (1 mark)

Selects a temperature or staged process that balances rate and equilibrium yield.

Part c (1 mark)

Uses both the 18.0% and 13.5% observations in the justification.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies an additional process consideration, such as energy demand or product removal/recycling.

Section B Question 4

(a) Converts 35.0 min to 2100 s. Calculates Q = It = 1.008 × 10⁴ C. Calculates n(e⁻) = Q/F = 0.104 mol.

Converts 35.0 min to 2100 s. Calculates Q = It = 1.008 × 10⁴ C. Calculates n(e⁻) = Q/F = 0.104 mol.

(b) Uses the two-electron stoichiometry to obtain n(Cl₂) = 0.0522 mol. Uses Vm = 24.8 L mol⁻¹ from the Data Book. Obtains V(Cl₂) = 1.29 L to three significant figures.

Uses the two-electron stoichiometry to obtain n(Cl₂) = 0.0522 mol. Uses Vm = 24.8 L mol⁻¹ from the Data Book. Obtains V(Cl₂) = 1.29 L to three significant figures.

(c) Requires local exhaust or a sealed gas-collection system because chlorine is toxic by inhalation. Requires compatible eye/skin protection because electrolyte and chlorine products are corrosive or irritating. Requires power isolation before adjustment to control electrical and chemical exposure.

Requires local exhaust or a sealed gas-collection system because chlorine is toxic by inhalation. Requires compatible eye/skin protection because electrolyte and chlorine products are corrosive or irritating. Requires power isolation before adjustment to control electrical and chemical exposure.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Converts 35.0 min to 2100 s.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates Q = It = 1.008 × 10⁴ C.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates n(e⁻) = Q/F = 0.104 mol.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses the two-electron stoichiometry to obtain n(Cl₂) = 0.0522 mol.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses Vm = 24.8 L mol⁻¹ from the Data Book.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains V(Cl₂) = 1.29 L to three significant figures.

Part c (1 mark)

Requires local exhaust or a sealed gas-collection system because chlorine is toxic by inhalation.

Part c (1 mark)

Requires compatible eye/skin protection because electrolyte and chlorine products are corrosive or irritating.

Part c (1 mark)

Requires power isolation before adjustment to control electrical and chemical exposure.

Section B Question 5

(a) Identifies X to Y as substitution of bromine by hydroxyl groups. Identifies Y to Z as oxidation of primary alcohol groups to carboxylic acids. Identifies a suitable oxidising reagent, such as acidified potassium dichromate or acidified potassium permanganate.

Identifies X to Y as substitution of bromine by hydroxyl groups. Identifies Y to Z as oxidation of primary alcohol groups to carboxylic acids. Identifies a suitable oxidising reagent, such as acidified potassium dichromate or acidified potassium permanganate.

(b) Identifies condensation polymerisation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups. States that ester linkages form in the polymer backbone. States that a small molecule such as water is eliminated during link formation.

Identifies condensation polymerisation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups. States that ester linkages form in the polymer backbone. States that a small molecule such as water is eliminated during link formation.

(c) Evaluates whether the feedstock is renewable while noting that renewability alone does not ensure low impact. Evaluates atom economy or by-product formation across substitution, oxidation and condensation. Identifies solvent, oxidant, energy or end-of-life evidence needed before claiming improved sustainability.

Evaluates whether the feedstock is renewable while noting that renewability alone does not ensure low impact. Evaluates atom economy or by-product formation across substitution, oxidation and condensation. Identifies solvent, oxidant, energy or end-of-life evidence needed before claiming improved sustainability.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies X to Y as substitution of bromine by hydroxyl groups.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies Y to Z as oxidation of primary alcohol groups to carboxylic acids.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies a suitable oxidising reagent, such as acidified potassium dichromate or acidified potassium permanganate.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies condensation polymerisation between hydroxyl and carboxyl groups.

Part b (1 mark)

States that ester linkages form in the polymer backbone.

Part b (1 mark)

States that a small molecule such as water is eliminated during link formation.

Part c (1 mark)

Evaluates whether the feedstock is renewable while noting that renewability alone does not ensure low impact.

Part c (1 mark)

Evaluates atom economy or by-product formation across substitution, oxidation and condensation.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies solvent, oxidant, energy or end-of-life evidence needed before claiming improved sustainability.

Section B Question 6

(a) Uses m/z 150 as the molecular-ion evidence for Mr approximately 150. Uses the broad 2500-3300 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carboxylic-acid O-H environment. Uses the 1712 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carbonyl group.

Uses m/z 150 as the molecular-ion evidence for Mr approximately 150. Uses the broad 2500-3300 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carboxylic-acid O-H environment. Uses the 1712 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carbonyl group.

(b) Distinguishes structural identification from pharmacological effect. States that dose-response or target-binding evidence is required. Notes that extract components or isomers may confound attribution without purification.

Distinguishes structural identification from pharmacological effect. States that dose-response or target-binding evidence is required. Notes that extract components or isomers may confound attribution without purification.

(c) Separates the extract chromatographically and compares retention with an authentic standard. Collects a complementary spectrum such as NMR for the isolated peak. Tests a concentration series with positive, negative and solvent controls before making an activity claim.

Separates the extract chromatographically and compares retention with an authentic standard. Collects a complementary spectrum such as NMR for the isolated peak. Tests a concentration series with positive, negative and solvent controls before making an activity claim.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses m/z 150 as the molecular-ion evidence for Mr approximately 150.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the broad 2500-3300 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carboxylic-acid O-H environment.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the 1712 cm⁻¹ absorption as evidence for a carbonyl group.

Part b (1 mark)

Distinguishes structural identification from pharmacological effect.

Part b (1 mark)

States that dose-response or target-binding evidence is required.

Part b (1 mark)

Notes that extract components or isomers may confound attribution without purification.

Part c (1 mark)

Separates the extract chromatographically and compares retention with an authentic standard.

Part c (1 mark)

Collects a complementary spectrum such as NMR for the isolated peak.

Part c (1 mark)

Tests a concentration series with positive, negative and solvent controls before making an activity claim.

Section B Question 7

(a) Adds stored and auxiliary inputs to obtain 7.85 MJ. Uses efficiency = useful output/total input × 100. Obtains 74.5% to three significant figures.

Adds stored and auxiliary inputs to obtain 7.85 MJ. Uses efficiency = useful output/total input × 100. Obtains 74.5% to three significant figures.

(b) Defines capacity as the maximum amount of energy the system can store. Defines efficiency as the proportion of input energy recovered usefully. Explains that a high-capacity device can still have a low efficiency.

Defines capacity as the maximum amount of energy the system can store. Defines efficiency as the proportion of input energy recovered usefully. Explains that a high-capacity device can still have a low efficiency.

(c) Identifies a relevant common basis such as delivered energy, lifetime emissions or response time. States that the supplied data establish only the thermal store's round-trip efficiency. Requests matched battery data and functional requirements before recommending a technology.

Identifies a relevant common basis such as delivered energy, lifetime emissions or response time. States that the supplied data establish only the thermal store's round-trip efficiency. Requests matched battery data and functional requirements before recommending a technology.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Adds stored and auxiliary inputs to obtain 7.85 MJ.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses efficiency = useful output/total input × 100.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains 74.5% to three significant figures.

Part b (1 mark)

Defines capacity as the maximum amount of energy the system can store.

Part b (1 mark)

Defines efficiency as the proportion of input energy recovered usefully.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that a high-capacity device can still have a low efficiency.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies a relevant common basis such as delivered energy, lifetime emissions or response time.

Part c (1 mark)

States that the supplied data establish only the thermal store's round-trip efficiency.

Part c (1 mark)

Requests matched battery data and functional requirements before recommending a technology.

Section B Question 8

(a) Recognises that 46 units lies between the 4.00 and 6.00 mg L⁻¹ standards. Interpolates a diluted concentration of approximately 5.0 mg L⁻¹. Reports the estimate with units and sensible precision.

Recognises that 46 units lies between the 4.00 and 6.00 mg L⁻¹ standards. Interpolates a diluted concentration of approximately 5.0 mg L⁻¹. Reports the estimate with units and sensible precision.

(b) Uses c(original) = 5.00 × c(diluted). Calculates approximately 25 mg L⁻¹ in the original sample. Explains that dilution preserves the amount of solvent R while increasing solution volume five-fold, so the diluted concentration is one-fifth of the original.

Uses c(original) = 5.00 × c(diluted). Calculates approximately 25 mg L⁻¹ in the original sample. Explains that dilution preserves the amount of solvent R while increasing solution volume five-fold, so the diluted concentration is one-fifth of the original.

(c) Observes that peak area is approximately linear over the stated range. Notes that no replicate spread or blank response is supplied. Proposes replicate standards, a reagent blank or a best-fit regression with uncertainty.

Observes that peak area is approximately linear over the stated range. Notes that no replicate spread or blank response is supplied. Proposes replicate standards, a reagent blank or a best-fit regression with uncertainty.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Recognises that 46 units lies between the 4.00 and 6.00 mg L⁻¹ standards.

Part a (1 mark)

Interpolates a diluted concentration of approximately 5.0 mg L⁻¹.

Part a (1 mark)

Reports the estimate with units and sensible precision.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses c(original) = 5.00 × c(diluted).

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates approximately 25 mg L⁻¹ in the original sample.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that dilution preserves the amount of solvent R while increasing solution volume five-fold, so the diluted concentration is one-fifth of the original.

Part c (1 mark)

Observes that peak area is approximately linear over the stated range.

Part c (1 mark)

Notes that no replicate spread or blank response is supplied.

Part c (1 mark)

Proposes replicate standards, a reagent blank or a best-fit regression with uncertainty.

Section B Question 9

(a) States an aim comparing heat retention by defined salt hydrates under matched conditions. Predicts which measurable cooling behaviour would indicate greater heat retention. Names temperature change over a defined time as the response variable.

States an aim comparing heat retention by defined salt hydrates under matched conditions. Predicts which measurable cooling behaviour would indicate greater heat retention. Names temperature change over a defined time as the response variable.

(b) Requires equal sample amount or thermal capacity and identical containers. Requires controlled initial temperature, ambient conditions and measurement interval. Includes independent repeats and comparison of means with spread.

Requires equal sample amount or thermal capacity and identical containers. Requires controlled initial temperature, ambient conditions and measurement interval. Includes independent repeats and comparison of means with spread.

(c) Links unequal mass to unequal stored thermal energy. Links uninsulated beakers to uncontrolled heat exchange.

Links unequal mass to unequal stored thermal energy. Links uninsulated beakers to uncontrolled heat exchange.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

States an aim comparing heat retention by defined salt hydrates under matched conditions.

Part a (1 mark)

Predicts which measurable cooling behaviour would indicate greater heat retention.

Part a (1 mark)

Names temperature change over a defined time as the response variable.

Part b (1 mark)

Requires equal sample amount or thermal capacity and identical containers.

Part b (1 mark)

Requires controlled initial temperature, ambient conditions and measurement interval.

Part b (1 mark)

Includes independent repeats and comparison of means with spread.

Part c (1 mark)

Links unequal mass to unequal stored thermal energy.

Part c (1 mark)

Links uninsulated beakers to uncontrolled heat exchange.

Section B Question 10

(a) Traces electricity through electrolysis, ammonia synthesis and reconversion rather than treating one step as the whole system. Uses the stated 71% net hydrogen utilisation and 38% conversion figures to identify substantial cumulative losses within the defined no-recycle boundary. Recognises that storage and transport benefits may still justify lower round-trip efficiency for backup use.

Traces electricity through electrolysis, ammonia synthesis and reconversion rather than treating one step as the whole system. Uses the stated 71% net hydrogen utilisation and 38% conversion figures to identify substantial cumulative losses within the defined no-recycle boundary. Recognises that storage and transport benefits may still justify lower round-trip efficiency for backup use.

(b) Distinguishes renewable electricity input from guaranteed lifecycle sustainability. Identifies ammonia toxicity, leakage or nitrogen-oxide formation as a risk requiring controls. States that incomplete local air modelling prevents a confident community-exposure conclusion.

Distinguishes renewable electricity input from guaranteed lifecycle sustainability. Identifies ammonia toxicity, leakage or nitrogen-oxide formation as a risk requiring controls. States that incomplete local air modelling prevents a confident community-exposure conclusion.

(c) Makes a conditional pilot, defer or reject recommendation consistent with the evidence. Requires baseline and operating measurements for energy use and ammonia leakage. Requires nitrogen-oxide or local air-quality monitoring with a stated review trigger. Includes a stop or redesign condition if safety or efficiency thresholds are not met.

Makes a conditional pilot, defer or reject recommendation consistent with the evidence. Requires baseline and operating measurements for energy use and ammonia leakage. Requires nitrogen-oxide or local air-quality monitoring with a stated review trigger. Includes a stop or redesign condition if safety or efficiency thresholds are not met.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Traces electricity through electrolysis, ammonia synthesis and reconversion rather than treating one step as the whole system.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the stated 71% net hydrogen utilisation and 38% conversion figures to identify substantial cumulative losses within the defined no-recycle boundary.

Part a (1 mark)

Recognises that storage and transport benefits may still justify lower round-trip efficiency for backup use.

Part b (1 mark)

Distinguishes renewable electricity input from guaranteed lifecycle sustainability.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies ammonia toxicity, leakage or nitrogen-oxide formation as a risk requiring controls.

Part b (1 mark)

States that incomplete local air modelling prevents a confident community-exposure conclusion.

Part c (1 mark)

Makes a conditional pilot, defer or reject recommendation consistent with the evidence.

Part c (1 mark)

Requires baseline and operating measurements for energy use and ammonia leakage.

Part c (1 mark)

Requires nitrogen-oxide or local air-quality monitoring with a stated review trigger.

Part c (1 mark)

Includes a stop or redesign condition if safety or efficiency thresholds are not met.

Diagnostic Checklist

TopicQuestionsMarksMarks LostAction
Energy options A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, B1, B2, B7 33 ___ Review fuels, thermochemistry, redox and electrochemical cells.
Optimising rate and yield A7, A8, A9, A10, A11, A12, B3, B4 24 ___ Review collision theory, catalysts, equilibrium, industrial conditions and electrolysis.
Organic categorisation and synthesis A13, A14, A15, A16, A17, A18, B5 15 ___ Review structures, nomenclature, functional groups, reactions, pathways and green chemistry.
Organic analysis and use A19, A20, A21, A22, A23, A24, B6, B8 24 ___ Review spectroscopy, chromatography, biomolecules, medicines and structure-property reasoning.
Scientific inquiry A25, A26, A27, A28, A29, A30, B9, B10 24 ___ Review hypotheses, safe methods, data treatment, uncertainty, evaluation and evidence-based conclusions.

What is included

Question and Answer Book questions (120 marks)

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Diagnostic checklist shown online

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