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TASC Physics Level 4 — Free Online Pack 0

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TASC PHY415115 four-section written practice examination 2026 Edition - Pack 0 v2.0
Updated 14 Sep 2026

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Course alignment: Physics Level 4 (PHY415115) — Version 3c — from 1 January 2026.

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TASC Physics Level 4

20 questions

180 marks

Reading: 15 minutes preparation · Writing: 3 hoursFree online paper · no PDF download or checkout

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Covered in this pack

  • Current TASC Physics Level 4 PHY415115 - Criterion 5 45 marks · 5 questions
  • Current TASC Physics Level 4 PHY415115 - Criterion 6 45 marks · 5 questions
  • Current TASC Physics Level 4 PHY415115 - Criterion 7 45 marks · 5 questions
  • Current TASC Physics Level 4 PHY415115 - Criterion 8 45 marks · 5 questions

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Skill Align TASC Physics Level 4 - Free Online Pack 0

An independently authored four-section PHY415115 practice examination themed around Tasmanian coastal monitoring, hydro-electric infrastructure and medical technology.

Paper
Written practice examination
Reading
15 minutes preparation
Writing
3 hours
Assessment
180 marks

The current TASC PHY415115 Physics Information Sheet is approved for use throughout the examination and is linked as a separate official resource.

Section A - Newtonian Physics

5 compulsory questions, 45 marks. Suggested working time: 45 minutes. This section assesses Criterion 5.

Question 1

6 marks
Stimulus

A coastal survey crew releases equipment from a drone above a level beach while maintaining constant horizontal velocity. The sensor package is released at 14.0 m s^-1 horizontally, 28.0 m above its landing level. Ignore air resistance.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
release platform landing level sensor package 14.0 m s^-1 ideal trajectory 28.0 m
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the time of flight.
(b) 2 marks
Determine the horizontal range and downward velocity component immediately before impact.
(c) 2 marks
Calculate the magnitude and direction of the impact velocity.

Question 2

8 marks
Stimulus

During a Hobart training session, a wicketkeeper redirects a moving practice ball through a measured contact interval. A 0.180 kg practice ball initially moves east at 6.00 m s^-1. For 0.120 s it experiences constant force components -3.00 N east and 8.00 N north.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the impulse components delivered to the object.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the final momentum components and final speed.
(c) 3 marks
Calculate the direction of the final velocity and explain why momentum, rather than speed alone, must be treated vectorially.

Question 3

9 marks
Stimulus

An electric maintenance cart travels along a straight service tunnel while its traction system works against rolling resistance. A 420 kg maintenance cart travels at 4.00 m s^-1 along a level path. A constant drive force of 1200 N acts for 18.0 m while total resistance is 300 N. The interval lasts 2.64 s.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the net force and net work done on the vehicle.
(b) 3 marks
Use energy to calculate the final speed.
(c) 3 marks
Calculate the average power supplied by the drive force and the fraction of drive work that becomes additional kinetic energy.

Question 4

10 marks
Stimulus

A proposed Earth-observation satellite is modelled in a circular orbit for repeated imaging of Tasmania. The survey satellite follows a circular orbit of radius 7.10 × 10^6 m around Earth, whose mass is 5.97 × 10^24 kg. Treat Earth as spherical.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
Earth survey satellite orbital radius 7.10 × 10^6 m circular orbit
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the gravitational-field strength at the orbit.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the orbital speed.
(c) 4 marks
Calculate the orbital period, then determine the period ratio for a second circular orbit at 1.30 times the radius.

Question 5

12 marks
Stimulus

A winch pulls a turbine component at constant applied force up an inclined hydro-electric service rail. A 180 kg turbine component starts from rest and is pulled 25.0 m up a 12.0 degree incline by a constant 900 N force parallel to the slope. Friction is 120 N and the motion lasts 4.67 s.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
(a) 3 marks
Resolve the forces parallel to the incline and calculate the acceleration.
(b) 4 marks
Calculate the final speed and verify the energy balance.
(c) 5 marks
Calculate the average applied power and the percentage of applied work appearing as additional kinetic energy. Evaluate what the remaining energy terms represent.

Section B - Electromagnetism

5 compulsory questions, 45 marks. Suggested working time: 45 minutes. This section assesses Criterion 6.

Question 6

6 marks
Stimulus

Two positively charged fog droplets are held at fixed positions inside an atmospheric sampling chamber. Two fixed positive point charges, +2.00 nC and +8.00 nC, are 0.300 m apart.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
+2.00 nC +8.00 nC 0.300 m
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the magnitude and direction of the force on each charge.
(b) 2 marks
Determine the net electric-field magnitude at the midpoint and state its direction.
(c) 2 marks
Locate the point between the charges where the net electric field is zero.

Question 7

8 marks
Stimulus

A proton beam enters horizontally midway between parallel deflection plates in a compact medical-beam demonstrator. A positive proton of charge 1.60 × 10^-19 C and mass 1.67 × 10^-27 kg enters horizontally at 3.00 × 10^5 m s^-1 between plates 0.0400 m apart and 0.0500 m long. The potential difference is 80.0 V; ignore gravity.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
+ positive plate - negative plate proton 3.00 × 10^5 m s^-1 0.0400 m 80.0 V 0.0500 m
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the field strength and force magnitude on the particle.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the acceleration and time spent between the plates.
(c) 3 marks
Determine the displacement towards the negative plate and the exit direction.

Question 8

9 marks
Stimulus

A velocity-selected proton enters a uniform magnetic analyser field perpendicular to its motion. The proton, of mass 1.67 × 10^-27 kg and charge +1e, travels right at 1.80 × 10^6 m s^-1 into a uniform 0.220 T magnetic field directed into the page.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
0.220 T into page p+ proton 1.80 × 10^6 m s^-1 right
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the initial magnetic-force magnitude and state its direction.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the radius of the resulting path and explain why the speed remains constant.
(c) 3 marks
Calculate the period and state how doubling speed would affect radius and period.

Question 9

10 marks
Stimulus

Two long parallel substation busbars carry steady currents in the same direction and are mechanically supported over a known length. Two long parallel conductors are 0.180 m apart and carry currents 35.0 A and 55.0 A in the same direction. Consider an active parallel length of 1.20 m.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
(a) 3 marks
Calculate each conductor's magnetic-field magnitude at the midpoint and the resultant field there.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the force on the stated active length of either conductor and state whether it is attractive or repulsive.
(c) 4 marks
Explain why the forces form a Newton's-third-law pair and predict what changes if the second current reverses.

Question 10

12 marks
Stimulus

A conducting rail on a harbour wave monitor slides through a uniform field while completing a resistive circuit. A 0.450 m conducting rail moves right at 4.00 m s^-1 through a uniform 0.600 T field into the page. The rail-and-load circuit resistance is 1.80 ohm. The graph shows the ideal emf-speed relationship.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Graph Preview
01.332.6741.080.720.360conductor speed (m s^-1)induced emf (V)
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the induced emf and circuit current at the stated speed.
(b) 4 marks
Use the graph gradient to determine the magnetic flux density and explain the intercept.
(c) 5 marks
Determine the magnetic force opposing the motion and verify conservation of power. Explain the current direction using Lenz's law.

Section C - Wave Motion

5 compulsory questions, 45 marks. Suggested working time: 45 minutes. This section assesses Criterion 7.

Question 11

6 marks
Stimulus

A sonar pulse crosses from one uniform seawater layer into a slower layer at an oblique boundary. A wave of frequency 500 Hz travels from upper seawater, where its speed is 1500 m s^-1, into lower seawater, where its speed is 1100 m s^-1. Its incident angle is 35.0 degrees to the normal.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
incident wave refracted wave normal upper seawater lower seawater 35.0 degrees
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the wavelength in each medium.
(b) 2 marks
Calculate the refracted angle.
(c) 2 marks
Explain what changes and what remains constant at the boundary.

Question 12

8 marks
Stimulus

A taut monitoring cable fixed at both ends is driven in a stable standing-wave pattern. The monitoring cable has vibrating length 0.750 m, tension 120 N and linear density 4.00 × 10^-3 kg m^-1. It is fixed at both ends and vibrates in harmonic 3.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
monitoring cableL = 0.750 m
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the wave speed on the string.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the fundamental frequency and the stated harmonic frequency.
(c) 3 marks
Determine the wavelength and describe the node-antinode pattern.

Question 13

9 marks
Stimulus

Two coherent loudspeakers form an interference pattern across a straight listening line in a test hall. Two in-phase coherent sources, identified as loudspeaker pair, have wavelength 0.340 m and separation 1.20 m. They lie at transverse coordinates +d/2 and -d/2. A parallel observation line is 8.00 m from the source line; y is measured from the central axis. Use the small-angle approximation only for the central band width.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
loudspeaker pairlambda = 0.340 m d = 1.20 m x = 8.00 mnode-to-node band width
(a) 3 marks
Estimate the node-to-node band width near the central axis.
(b) 3 marks
At y = 4.53 m from the central axis, calculate the two actual source-to-point distances and their difference. Assess the claim that this is a second-order constructive maximum.
(c) 3 marks
Predict and explain the effects of increasing wavelength and reducing source separation.

Question 14

10 marks
Stimulus

A laboratory adjustable oscillator is compared with a reference oscillator before a school acoustics investigation. The reference oscillator has a calibrated frequency of 440 Hz. When sounded with the adjustable oscillator, 12 beats are counted in 4.00 s. Increasing the adjustable oscillator frequency slightly makes the beats slower.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the beat frequency and explain the changing loudness.
(b) 3 marks
State the two possible frequencies of the unknown source before using the adjustment clue.
(c) 4 marks
Use the adjustment observation to identify the unknown frequency and describe what happens when the sources are tuned exactly together.

Question 15

12 marks
Stimulus

Students vary tension in the same uniform string and determine wave speed from repeated frequency and wavelength measurements. The data for this laboratory string are 20.0 N: 78.3 m s^-1, 40.0 N: 112 m s^-1, 60.0 N: 136 m s^-1, 80.0 N: 160 m s^-1. The accepted linear density is 3.20 × 10^-3 kg m^-1.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Graph Preview
0204060803000020000100000tension (N)wave speed squared (m^2 s^-2)
(a) 4 marks
Explain why plotting wave speed squared against tension tests the stretched-medium model and determine a best-fit gradient.
(b) 4 marks
Use the gradient to infer linear density and compare it with the accepted value.
(c) 4 marks
A student claims that doubling tension doubles wave speed. Evaluate this claim using the wave model and the data, then predict the speed at twice the largest recorded tension.

Section D - Light, Atomic and Nuclear Physics

5 compulsory questions, 45 marks. Suggested working time: 45 minutes. This section assesses Criterion 8.

Question 16

6 marks
Stimulus

A solar-observation exercise links a thermal spectrum to electron emission from a clean photocathode. A thermal source has temperature 5800 K. Light of frequency 7.00 × 10^14 Hz from the system illuminates caesium photocathode, whose work function is 2.10 eV.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Graph Preview
light frequency maximum electron kinetic energy threshold = 2.10 eV/h gradient h caesium photocathode
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the thermal spectrum's peak wavelength.
(b) 2 marks
Calculate the maximum photoelectron kinetic energy and stopping potential.
(c) 2 marks
Predict the effect of increasing intensity at fixed frequency on photocurrent and maximum kinetic energy.

Question 17

8 marks
Stimulus

In a hospital X-ray tube, electrons are accelerated through 70.0 kV before striking a tungsten target.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the maximum photon frequency and minimum wavelength.
(b) 2 marks
Calculate the momentum of a minimum-wavelength photon.
(c) 3 marks
Distinguish the continuous and characteristic parts of the X-ray spectrum and predict the effect of increasing tube current.

Question 18

9 marks
Stimulus

A simplified three-level model vapour atom with electron energies -10.0 eV, -5.00 eV and -2.00 eV produces discrete absorption and emission lines in a spectroscope.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Diagram Preview
model vapour atom energy levels -2.00 eV -5.00 eV -10.0 eV
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the minimum photon frequency that excites an atom from the ground level to the upper level.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the longest-wavelength photon emitted in transitions among these three levels.
(c) 3 marks
Explain why the atom produces discrete line spectra and distinguish photon absorption from emission.

Question 19

10 marks
Stimulus

A short-lived medical tracer is monitored beside a detector with a stable background count rate. A detector records 250 counts s^-1 from diagnostic tracer plus a steady background of 10.0 counts s^-1. The half-life is 6.00 h and the sample is observed again after 15.0 h.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Graph Preview
diagnostic tracer corrected activity time corrected count rate A0 = 240 counts s^-1 T1/2 = 6.00 h second half-life approaches zero
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the initial background-corrected count rate and the predicted detector reading after the elapsed time.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the decay constant in h^-1 and the remaining fraction of undecayed nuclei.
(c) 4 marks
A student expects the total detector reading to halve every source half-life and eventually become exactly zero. Evaluate both predictions, and explain why a measured count need not equal the model prediction.

Question 20

12 marks
Stimulus

A research team models the energy balance of light-nuclei fusion and compares it with continuous plant output. In this light-nuclei fusion process, light nuclei (mass number below 20) combine into a more tightly bound medium-light product. Total product mass is 0.215 u less than total reactant mass, and the system releases thermal power 120 MW.

Use the supplied context to answer all items in this question.
Graph Preview
020561001502002401086420hydrogenlight nucleiiron-region maximumheavy nucleimass number Abinding energy per nucleon (MeV)
(a) 4 marks
Calculate the energy released per reaction in MeV and joules.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the number of reactions per second required for the stated thermal power.
(c) 3 marks
Use the binding-energy-per-nucleon curve and the strong nuclear force to explain why the reaction can release energy.
(d) 2 marks
State the up/down quark compositions of a proton and neutron. Explain why two well-separated nuclei do not attract each other through the strong nuclear force.

This independent Skill Align practice examination is not an official TASC examination. Skill Align is not affiliated with, authorised by, sponsored by, approved by, or endorsed by TASC or the Tasmanian Government.

Copyright (c) 2026 Skill Align. Free for personal, non-commercial online viewing at https://skillalign.au. You may share the Skill Align page link. Except as permitted by law or with Skill Align's prior written permission, the pack itself must not be resold, copied, redistributed, republished, automatically extracted, or uploaded to a question bank. Every question, dataset, answer and marking description in this pack is original Skill Align content.

Worked Solutions And Marking Guide

General marking principles

  • Apply each question-specific criterion to the evidence shown and accept equivalent scientifically correct reasoning.
  • Carry forward an earlier numerical error when later physics is internally consistent, unless a later criterion independently assesses the same step.
  • Award numerical marks against the mapped external criterion and the evidence supplied for that question.
  • Do not penalise a missing unit more than once in a linked calculation unless units are separately assessed.

Section A Question 1

(a) Vertical motion starts with zero vertical velocity, so 28.0 = 0.5(9.81)t^2 and t = 2.39 s.

(b) The range is vt = 33.4 m. The downward component is gt = 23.4 m s^-1.

(c) Combining perpendicular components gives 27.3 m s^-1 at 59.1 degrees below the horizontal.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the vertical displacement relationship with zero initial vertical velocity.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the time of flight as 2.39 s.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the horizontal range as 33.4 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the downward impact component as 23.4 m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Combines the components to obtain an impact speed of 27.3 m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Determines the direction as 59.1 degrees below horizontal.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section A Question 2

(a) J_x = F_x delta t = -0.360 N s and J_y = F_y delta t = 0.960 N s.

(b) Initial momentum is 1.08 kg m s^-1 east. Final components are (0.720, 0.960) kg m s^-1, giving speed 6.67 m s^-1.

(c) The direction is tan^-1(p_y/p_x) = 53.1 degrees north of east. Impulse changes the momentum vector; scalar speed cannot retain the independent east and north changes.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the eastward impulse as -0.360 N s.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the northward impulse as 0.960 N s.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Adds the impulse vector to the initial momentum vector.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Obtains the final components and speed 6.67 m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates a direction of 53.1 degrees north of east.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Explains that impulse and momentum are vectors whose perpendicular components must be combined.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section A Question 3

(a) F_net = 900 N and W_net = F_net s = 1.62 × 10^4 J.

(b) K_i = 3360 J and K_f = K_i + W_net = 1.96 × 10^4 J, so v_f = 9.65 m s^-1. Independently, a = F_net/m = 2.14 m s^-2 and u + at gives the same final speed apart from rounding.

(c) Drive work is 2.16 × 10^4 J, so average drive power is 8191 W. The kinetic-energy fraction is W_net/W_drive = 75.0%.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Determines the net force as 900 N.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Calculates net work of 1.62 × 10^4 J with its sign and unit.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies the work-energy theorem to the net work.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates the final speed as 9.65 m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates average drive power as 8191 W.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Calculates and interprets the kinetic-energy fraction as 75.0%.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section A Question 4

(a) g = GM/r^2 = 7.90 N kg^-1.

(b) Equating gravity and centripetal acceleration gives v = sqrt(GM/r) = 7489 m s^-1.

(c) T = 2pir/v = 5957 s. Kepler's third law gives T2/T1 = (1.30)^(3/2) = 1.48.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the distance from the central body's centre in g = GM/r^2.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Calculates the field strength as 7.90 N kg^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Equates gravitational acceleration with centripetal acceleration.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates the orbital speed as 7489 m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Calculates the first orbital period as 5957 s.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Applies Kepler's third law to obtain a period ratio of 1.48.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section A Question 5

(a) The downhill weight component is mg sin(theta) = 367 N. Net uphill force is 413 N, giving a = 2.29 m s^-2.

(b) v = sqrt(2as) = 10.7 m s^-1. Input work 2.25 × 10^4 J equals kinetic gain 1.03 × 10^4 J plus potential gain 9178 J and friction loss 3000 J, apart from rounding.

(c) Average applied power is 4819 W and the kinetic-energy percentage is 45.9%. The remaining input raises gravitational potential energy and is dissipated thermally by friction.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the downhill weight component as 367 N.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Combines all parallel forces and calculates acceleration 2.29 m s^-2.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates the final speed as 10.7 m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Accounts quantitatively for kinetic, gravitational-potential and frictional energy changes.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Calculates average applied power as 4819 W.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates the kinetic-energy percentage as 45.9%.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Explains the gravitational-potential and frictional destinations of the remaining energy.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section B Question 6

(a) Coulomb's law gives F = 1.60 × 10^-6 N. The like charges repel, so the forces are equal in magnitude and opposite along their joining line.

(b) The fields oppose at the midpoint. Their difference is 2400 N C^-1, directed from the larger charge towards the smaller charge.

(c) Equating kq1/x^2 and kq2/(d-x)^2 gives x = 0.100 m from the +2.00 nC charge.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the Coulomb-force magnitude as 1.60 × 10^-6 N.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

States that the equal and opposite forces are repulsive.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the midpoint field magnitude as 2400 N C^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Gives the net direction from the larger positive charge towards the smaller one.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Equates the two inverse-square field magnitudes in the region between the charges.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Locates the point 0.100 m from the smaller charge.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section B Question 7

(a) E = V/d = 2000 V m^-1 and F = qE = 3.20 × 10^-16 N towards the negative plate.

(b) a = F/m = 1.92 × 10^11 m s^-2 and t = L/v_x = 1.67 × 10^-7 s.

(c) y = 0.5at^2 = 2.66 × 10^-3 m. The vertical exit component is 3.19 × 10^4 m s^-1, so the direction is 6.08 degrees towards the negative plate from the horizontal.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the uniform field as 2000 V m^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates force 3.20 × 10^-16 N towards the negative plate.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates acceleration 1.92 × 10^11 m s^-2.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Uses the unchanged horizontal speed to calculate transit time 1.67 × 10^-7 s.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates deflection 2.66 × 10^-3 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Calculates the exit component and direction 6.08 degrees from horizontal.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section B Question 8

(a) F = qvB = 6.34 × 10^-14 N. For a positive charge moving right with B into the page, the force is upward.

(b) r = mv/(qB) = 0.0854 m. Magnetic force remains perpendicular to velocity, so it changes direction but does no work and does not change speed.

(c) T = 2pim/(qB) = 2.98 × 10^-7 s. Doubling speed doubles radius, while the non-relativistic period is unchanged.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Converts the stated charge multiple to coulombs.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates magnetic force 6.34 × 10^-14 N.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the positive-charge rule to give an upward force.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates the circular-path radius as 0.0854 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that perpendicular magnetic force changes direction without doing work.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates period 2.98 × 10^-7 s.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Correctly predicts doubled radius and unchanged period when speed doubles.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section B Question 9

(a) The fields are 7.78 × 10^-5 T and 1.22 × 10^-4 T. They oppose between same-direction currents, giving resultant magnitude 4.44 × 10^-5 T in the direction of the stronger field.

(b) F/l = k_BI1I2/r = 2.14 × 10^-3 N m^-1, so F = 2.57 × 10^-3 N. Same-direction currents attract.

(c) Each wire's field acts on the current in the other, producing equal-magnitude opposite forces on different conductors. Reversing one current makes the forces repulsive and makes the two midpoint field contributions reinforce rather than oppose.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses B = k_BI/r with the midpoint distance.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Calculates both contributions and resultant 4.44 × 10^-5 T.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies the parallel-current force relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates force 2.57 × 10^-3 N and identifies attraction.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Identifies equal and opposite forces acting on different conductors.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Predicts repulsion and reinforcement of the midpoint fields after one current reverses.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section B Question 10

(a) emf = vlB = 1.08 V and I = emf/R = 0.600 A.

(b) The gradient is lB = 0.270 V s m^-1, so B = gradient/l = 0.600 T. At zero speed there is no conductor motion across field lines and hence zero motional emf.

(c) The induced current is upward in the moving conductor, making the magnetic force leftward and opposing the imposed motion. F = IlB = 0.162 N. Mechanical power Fv = 0.648 W equals I^2R = 0.648 W.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Applies the perpendicular motional-emf relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Calculates emf 1.08 V and current 0.600 A.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Determines the graph gradient as 0.270 V s m^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses the conductor length to recover B = 0.600 T.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains the physically required zero intercept.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Uses Lenz's law and the force rule to obtain a force opposite the motion.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Calculates the opposing force as 0.162 N.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Shows mechanical and resistive powers both equal 0.648 W.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section C Question 11

(a) lambda_1 = v_1/f = 3.00 m and lambda_2 = v_2/f = 2.20 m.

(b) sin(theta_2) = (v_2/v_1)sin(theta_1), giving theta_2 = 24.9 degrees.

(c) The source fixes the frequency, so frequency and period remain unchanged. Wave speed and wavelength decrease in the slower second medium, and the ray bends towards the normal.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the first wavelength as 3.00 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the second wavelength as 2.20 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies Snell's law using angles measured from the normal.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the refracted angle as 24.9 degrees.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

States that frequency and period remain unchanged across the boundary.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Connects reduced speed with reduced wavelength and bending towards the normal.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section C Question 12

(a) v = sqrt(T/mu) = 173 m s^-1.

(b) f_1 = v/(2L) = 115 Hz and f_3 = 3f_1 = 346 Hz.

(c) lambda = 2L/3 = 0.500 m. There are 4 nodes including both ends and 3 antinodes, one in each loop.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the tension and linear-density relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates wave speed 173 m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses the fixed-string fundamental relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates f1 = 115 Hz and the harmonic frequency 346 Hz.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates wavelength 0.500 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

Correctly identifies 4 nodes and 3 antinodes.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section C Question 13

(a) W = lambda x/d = 2.27 m.

(b) The distances are sqrt(x^2 + (y-d/2)^2) = 8.91319 m and sqrt(x^2 + (y+d/2)^2) = 9.50352 m. Their difference is 0.5903 m = 1.736 wavelengths. This is not an integer number of wavelengths, so it is not a constructive maximum. The off-axis small-angle estimate is inadequate here.

(c) Both changes increase W because band width is proportional to wavelength and inversely proportional to source separation. The interference features therefore spread farther apart.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the prescribed two-source band-width relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses consistent SI units.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates band width 2.27 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates path difference 0.590 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Compares the exact difference of 1.736 wavelengths with 2 and judges the maximum claim with appropriate precision.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Predicts wider spacing for increased wavelength.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Predicts wider spacing for reduced source separation.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Justifies both predictions using the proportional relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section C Question 14

(a) f_B = 12/4.00 = 3.00 Hz. Alternating constructive and destructive superposition makes the resultant amplitude, and hence loudness, rise and fall.

(b) Because |f_2 - f_1| = f_B, the possibilities are 437 Hz and 443 Hz.

(c) The adjustment raises the adjustable oscillator's frequency towards the reference frequency, so it was initially below the reference. The unknown frequency was 437 Hz. At exact tuning the beat frequency becomes zero and a steady resultant tone replaces the periodic loudness variation.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates beat frequency 3.00 Hz.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Explains loudness variation through alternating constructive and destructive superposition.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses the absolute frequency-difference relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Obtains both 437 Hz and 443 Hz.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (2 marks)

The adjustment raises the adjustable oscillator's frequency towards the reference frequency, so it was initially below the reference.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies the unknown frequency as 437 Hz.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that exact tuning removes beats and produces steady amplitude.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section C Question 15

(a) Since v = sqrt(T/mu), v^2 = (1/mu)T. Squaring the printed speeds gives the plotted points. A least-squares fit constrained through the model origin gives 315 kg^-1 m; graphical estimates from 299 to 331 kg^-1 m are reasonable.

(b) mu = 1/gradient = 3.17 × 10^-3 kg m^-1. This is close to 3.20 × 10^-3 kg m^-1; the difference is consistent with the small measurement scatter.

(c) The model gives v proportional to sqrt(T), so doubling tension multiplies speed by sqrt(2), not 2. The measured speed ratios are close to sqrt(2); the scatter does not establish exact agreement. At 160 N the accepted-density model predicts v = sqrt(T/mu) = 224 m s^-1, assuming the string retains the same linear density.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (2 marks)

Linearises v = sqrt(T/mu) to v squared = T/mu.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Draws or uses a reasonable best-fit line and determines a gradient from 299 to 331 kg^-1 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Recognises that linear density is the reciprocal of the gradient.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates an inferred density near 3.17 × 10^-3 kg m^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Makes a justified comparison with the accepted value.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Rejects the linear-speed claim using the square-root dependence on tension.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Uses a pair of data values or their squared speeds to support the model within scatter.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Predicts speed 224 m s^-1 at twice the largest tension.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

States that the prediction assumes unchanged linear density.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section D Question 16

(a) Wien's law gives lambda_peak = 2.90 × 10^-3/T = 5.00 × 10^-7 m.

(b) Photon energy is 2.90 eV, so K_max = 0.801 eV = 1.28 × 10^-19 J and the stopping potential is 0.801 V.

(c) Greater intensity supplies more photons per second, increasing the emission rate and photocurrent. Photon energy hf is unchanged, so maximum kinetic energy and stopping potential do not change.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Applies Wien's displacement law with absolute temperature.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates peak wavelength 5.00 × 10^-7 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Subtracts the work function from the photon energy.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains K_max 0.801 eV and stopping potential 0.801 V.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Predicts increased photocurrent from the increased photon arrival rate.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains why maximum kinetic energy and stopping potential remain unchanged.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section D Question 17

(a) The maximum photon energy is eV = 1.12 × 10^-14 J. Therefore f_max = 1.69 × 10^19 Hz and lambda_min = 1.78 × 10^-11 m.

(b) p = h/lambda = E/c = 3.73 × 10^-23 kg m s^-1.

(c) The continuous spectrum comes from electron deceleration through a range of energy losses. Characteristic lines come from target-atom inner-shell vacancies and fixed energy-level differences. Increasing tube current raises photon rate and intensity but does not change the cutoff frequency set by accelerating voltage.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Equates maximum photon energy with the accelerated electron energy eV.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Calculates f_max 1.69 × 10^19 Hz and lambda_min 1.78 × 10^-11 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses a valid photon-momentum relationship.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates photon momentum 3.73 × 10^-23 kg m s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains the continuous spectrum through electron deceleration.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains characteristic lines through target-atom energy-level differences.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Predicts increased intensity but unchanged cutoff frequency when tube current increases.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section D Question 18

(a) Delta E = 8.00 eV, so f = Delta E/h = 1.93 × 10^15 Hz.

(b) The smallest energy step is 3.00 eV from the upper to middle level. It gives f = 7.24 × 10^14 Hz and lambda = 4.14 × 10^-7 m.

(c) Only discrete electron energies are allowed, so photons can carry only differences between levels. Absorption raises an electron when photon energy matches an allowed difference; emission occurs when an electron falls and releases that difference as a photon.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Determines excitation energy 8.00 eV.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Converts energy and calculates frequency 1.93 × 10^15 Hz.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies the smallest allowed energy difference.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates the corresponding wavelength 4.14 × 10^-7 m.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Links discrete spectral lines with quantised electron energies.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Correctly describes resonant photon absorption.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Correctly describes photon emission during a downward transition.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section D Question 19

(a) A0 = 240 counts s^-1. The corrected later rate is 42.4 counts s^-1, so the detector reads 52.4 counts s^-1 after background is restored.

(b) lambda = 0.693/T1/2 = 0.115 h^-1 and N/N0 = 0.177.

(c) Only the source contribution halves. The total approaches the non-zero background as the source contribution decays. Decay is random, so predicted rates are statistical expectations; individual finite counts fluctuate around them.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Subtracts background to obtain 240 counts s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Calculates the later detector reading as 52.4 counts s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates decay constant 0.115 h^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates remaining fraction 0.177.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Distinguishes halving of the source rate from the source-plus-background total.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Predicts the background rate as the long-time limit.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies spontaneous random decay of individual nuclei.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Distinguishes an expected count from an individual fluctuating observation.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Section D Question 20

(a) Delta E = 0.215 × 931 = 200 MeV = 3.20 × 10^-11 J.

(b) Rate = P/Delta E = 1.20 × 10^8/3.20 × 10^-11 = 3.75 × 10^18 reactions s^-1.

(c) The fusion products lie to the right of the light reactants and closer to the iron-region maximum, so their binding energy per nucleon is greater. Their lower total mass corresponds to increased binding energy released by the reaction. The short-range strong force binds neighbouring nucleons.

(d) A proton is uud and a neutron is udd. The strong nuclear force is significant only over nuclear distances, so it is negligible for well-separated nuclei.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the mass-to-energy conversion 931 MeV per atomic mass unit.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates 200 MeV per reaction.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part a (2 marks)

Converts the result to 3.20 × 10^-11 J.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (1 mark)

Converts megawatts to watts and relates power to energy per reaction.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part b (2 marks)

Calculates reaction rate 3.75 × 10^18 s^-1.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Uses the supplied curve to place light reactants left of their more tightly bound fusion products.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

Relates greater binding to lower product mass and released energy.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part c (1 mark)

States the short-range nucleon-binding role of the strong nuclear force.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part d (1 mark)

Gives proton uud and neutron udd compositions.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Part d (1 mark)

Uses the short range of the strong nuclear force to explain negligible attraction at large separation.

Acceptable alternatives: Accept equivalent scientifically accurate reasoning or working applied to the supplied context.

Diagnostic Checklist

TopicQuestionsMarksMarks LostAction
Criterion 5 - Newtonian mechanics and gravitational fields Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4, Q5 45 ___ Review vectors, motion, momentum, Newton's laws, energy, circular motion and gravitation.
Criterion 6 - Electricity and magnetism Q6, Q7, Q8, Q9, Q10 45 ___ Review electric and magnetic fields, charged-particle motion, currents and motional induction.
Criterion 7 - General principles of wave motion Q11, Q12, Q13, Q14, Q15 45 ___ Review wave quantities, refraction, superposition, resonance, standing waves, interference and diffraction.
Criterion 8 - Light, atomic and nuclear physics Q16, Q17, Q18, Q19, Q20 45 ___ Review photons, spectra, wave-particle duality, radioactivity, mass defect and nuclear processes.

What is included

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2026 exam timetable reference View TASC 2026 timetable
  • Written examination Fri 13 Nov 2026 9:00 am Upcoming

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