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SACE Physics Stage 2 — Free Online Pack 0

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SACE Stage 2 written examination 2026 Edition - Pack 0 v2.0
Updated 24 Sep 2026

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Subject Outline alignment: Stage 2 Physics Subject Outline — reissued 2025; accredited from 2018.

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SACE Physics Stage 2

21 questions

120 marks

Reading: Included in total time · Writing: 130 minutes totalFree online paper · no PDF download or checkout

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Covered in this pack

  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Stage 2 science as a human endeavour 4 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Stage 2 science inquiry skills 16 marks · 2 questions
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 1.1 - Projectile motion 8 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 1.2 - Forces and momentum 7 marks · 2 questions
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 1.3 - Circular motion and gravitation 7 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 1.4 - Relativity 7 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 2.1 - Electric fields 5 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 2.2 - Motion of charged particles in electric fields 6 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 2.3 - Magnetic fields 3 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 2.4 - Motion of charged particles in magnetic fields 5 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 2.5 - Electromagnetic induction 8 marks · 2 questions
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 3.1 - Wave behaviour of light 6 marks · 1 question
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 3.2 - Wave-particle duality 23 marks · 3 questions
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 3.3 - Structure of the atom 10 marks · 2 questions
  • Current SACE Stage 2 Physics subject outline - Topic 3.4 - Standard Model 5 marks · 1 question

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Skill Align SACE Stage 2 Physics - Free Online Pack 0

An independently authored current-format practice examination with worked answers and question-specific marking guidance.

Paper
Question booklets 1 and 2
Reading
Included in total time
Writing
130 minutes total
Assessment
120 marks

The current SACE Physics formula sheet is supplied separately. Approved calculators may be used.

Question booklet 1

Questions 1 to 11 (60 marks). Answer all questions. Allow approximately 65 minutes.

Question 1

8 marks
Stimulus

A coastal survey drone flies horizontally at 18.0 m s^-1 and releases a sensor from 45.0 m above level sand. Ignore air resistance in parts (a) and (b).

Diagram Preview
release point sand sensor 18.0 m s^-1 ideal path 45.0 m
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the time taken for the sensor to reach the sand.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the horizontal range and the magnitude and direction of the impact velocity.
(c) 3 marks
Explain how air resistance would change the path and impact velocity compared with parts (a) and (b).

Question 2

7 marks
Stimulus

A mapping relay travels in a circular orbit of radius 2.40 × 10^6 m around an asteroid of mass 8.00 × 10^22 kg. Treat the asteroid as spherical.

Diagram Preview
asteroid mapping relay orbital radius 2.40 × 10^6 m circular orbit
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the gravitational field strength at the relay.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the orbital speed and period.
(c) 2 marks
A second relay orbits at 1.50 times this radius. Determine the ratio of its period to the first relay's period.

Question 3

6 marks
Stimulus

A positively charged aerosol ion has charge 3.20 × 10^-19 C and mass 6.40 × 10^-26 kg. It is between parallel plates separated by 0.0400 m with a potential difference of 1.20 kV.

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the electric-field strength between the plates.
(b) 2 marks
Calculate the ion's acceleration, ignoring gravity.
(c) 2 marks
Determine the energy transferred if the ion crosses the full potential difference, in joules and electronvolts.

Question 4

3 marks
A vertical busbar carries 8.00 A upward. A magnetic sensor is 0.0500 m east of its centre. Calculate the magnetic-field magnitude and state its direction at the sensor.

Question 5

3 marks
A north pole is withdrawn upward from a horizontal conducting ring. Viewed from above the magnet, determine the induced-current direction and explain it using Lenz's law.

Question 6

6 marks
Stimulus

A 600 nm laser illuminates two slits separated by 0.250 mm. A screen is 2.00 m from the slits.

Diagram Preview
600 nm laserλ = 600 nm d = 0.250 mm L = 2.00 mbright fringes
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the separation of adjacent bright fringes.
(b) 3 marks
Explain the bright and dark fringes, and predict the effect of replacing the laser with a coherent source of longer wavelength.

Question 7

4 marks
A perfectly reflecting solar sail receives a 4.00 kW collimated light beam perpendicular to its surface. Calculate the force on the sail and the acceleration of an 800 kg spacecraft. Explain the factor of two in the force relationship.

Question 8

4 marks
Stimulus

A photoelectric door sensor uses a metal with work function 2.00 eV. Light of frequency 7.25 × 10^14 Hz illuminates the metal.

(a) 3 marks
Calculate the maximum kinetic energy and stopping potential of the emitted electrons.
(b) 1 mark
State what changes when the light intensity increases while frequency remains constant.

Question 9

7 marks
Stimulus

An argon guide light is modelled with energy levels at -10.0 eV, -5.00 eV and -3.00 eV.

Diagram Preview
Argon energy levels -3.00 eV -5.00 eV -10.0 eVEnergy levels (schematic, not to scale)
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the frequency needed to excite an atom from -10.0 eV to -3.00 eV.
(b) 2 marks
Determine the lowest-frequency photon possible as the atom returns to the ground state through any allowed sequence.
(c) 3 marks
Explain why a population inversion and a metastable level are useful in producing laser light.

Question 10

5 marks
Two positive point charges, +2.00 nC and +8.00 nC, are 0.300 m apart. Determine the position between them where the net electric field is zero and explain why the point is closer to the smaller charge.
Diagram Preview
+2.00 nC +8.00 nC 0.300 m

Question 11

7 marks
Stimulus

A class varies the rotation frequency of a hand generator while keeping coil area, turns and magnetic field constant. The measured peak emfs are 1.20, 2.39, 3.61 and 4.79 V at 5.00, 10.0, 15.0 and 20.0 Hz respectively.

Graph Preview
51015204.793.612.391.2rotation frequency (Hz)peak emf (V)
(a) 2 marks
Determine the gradient of a suitable line of best fit and state its unit.
(b) 3 marks
Evaluate the claim that peak emf is directly proportional to rotation frequency.
(c) 2 marks
Identify two controls and one procedural improvement that would strengthen the investigation.

Question booklet 2

Questions 12 to 21 (60 marks). Answer all questions. Allow approximately 65 minutes.

Question 12

7 marks
Stimulus

A pion has a proper mean lifetime of 2.60 × 10^-8 s and moves through a detector at 0.980c.

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the Lorentz factor.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the mean lifetime and mean travel distance in the detector frame.
(c) 2 marks
Compare this with a Newtonian calculation and explain why detecting many pions beyond 30 m supports special relativity.

Question 13

9 marks
Stimulus

Students launch a ball at 45.0° from and to the same height. They measure ranges of 2.54, 3.68, 4.98 and 6.55 m for launch speeds of 5.00, 6.00, 7.00 and 8.00 m s^-1. Air resistance is small.

Graph Preview
253649646.554.983.682.54launch speed squared (m^2 s^-2)range (m)
(a) 3 marks
Explain why plotting range against speed squared is appropriate and determine the gradient.
(b) 3 marks
Use the graph to obtain an experimental value of g and compare it with 9.80 m s^-2.
(c) 3 marks
Evaluate one limitation and propose two changes that would improve the evidence.

Question 14

5 marks
Represent beta-minus decay at nucleon and quark level, identify the exchanged gauge boson, and demonstrate conservation of charge, baryon number and electronic lepton number.

Question 15

5 marks
Stimulus

An ideal transformer powers a 36.0 W aquarium lamp from a 240 V rms supply. The primary has 1200 turns and the secondary has 60 turns.

Diagram Preview
240 V rms AC 240 V single laminated core1200 turns 60 turns secondary leads 36.0 W lamp
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the secondary voltage.
(b) 1 mark
Calculate the secondary current.
(c) 2 marks
Explain why the transformer requires an alternating rather than steady direct input.

Question 16

8 marks
Stimulus

An airport inspection X-ray tube accelerates electrons through 80.0 kV before they strike a metal target.

(a) 3 marks
Calculate the maximum X-ray frequency.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the corresponding minimum wavelength and explain the continuous part of the spectrum.
(c) 2 marks
Predict the effect of increasing filament current while keeping accelerating voltage fixed.

Question 17

3 marks
A stationary navigation flare separates into three fragments. Fragment A has momentum 6.00 kg m s^-1 east and fragment B has momentum 8.00 kg m s^-1 north. Determine the magnitude and direction of fragment C's momentum.

Question 18

5 marks
Stimulus

A proton travels east at 2.00 × 10^6 m s^-1 into a uniform 0.300 T magnetic field directed into the page.

Diagram Preview
N E0.300 T into page p+ proton 2.00 × 10^6 m s^-1 east
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the magnetic force and state its direction.
(b) 2 marks
Calculate the radius of the proton's circular path.
(c) 1 mark
Explain why the magnetic field changes the proton's direction but not its speed.

Question 19

4 marks
A proposed gravitational-wave alert network combines independently calibrated detectors in Australia, Europe, Japan and North America. Explain two reasons why international collaboration improves the scientific evidence and one limitation that remains even when all detectors agree.

Question 20

11 marks
Stimulus

Electrons are accelerated from rest through 150 V and directed at a crystal whose effective plane spacing is 2.00 × 10^-10 m. Use non-relativistic momentum for this question.

Diagram Preview
150 V electron gun electron beam crystal planes 2.00 × 10^-10 m detector diffraction maxima
(a) 4 marks
Calculate the electron momentum and de Broglie wavelength.
(b) 2 marks
Treating the crystal planes as a transmission grating, calculate the first-order angle.
(c) 2 marks
Explain how a point-by-point electron pattern supports wave-particle duality and predict the effect of increasing the accelerating voltage.
(d) 3 marks
Suggest one measurement improvement and explain how it reduces uncertainty in the inferred wavelength.

Question 21

3 marks
Explain how stimulated emission produces coherent monochromatic light in a laser rangefinder, and state one safety control appropriate for its concentrated beam.
Diagram Preview
Laser amplification metastable upper level lower laser level lower state stimulated transition two identical photons

SACE Stage 2 examinations are administered by the SACE Board of South Australia. Skill Align is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with, authorised by, sponsored by, approved by, or endorsed by the SACE Board or the Government of South Australia.

Copyright (c) 2026 Skill Align. Free for personal, non-commercial online viewing at https://skillalign.au. You may share the Skill Align page link. Except as permitted by law or with Skill Align's prior written permission, the pack itself must not be resold, copied, redistributed, republished, automatically extracted, or uploaded to a question bank. Every question, dataset, answer and marking description in this pack is original Skill Align content.

Worked Solutions And Marking Guide

General marking principles

  • Apply each question-specific criterion to the physical evidence shown; accept equivalent scientifically correct reasoning.
  • Where a criterion spans linked steps, award its stated marks only when the complete linked reasoning is demonstrated.
  • Carry forward an earlier numerical error when later physics is internally consistent, unless a later criterion independently assesses the same step.
  • Do not penalise a missing unit more than once in a linked calculation unless the question separately assesses units.

Question 1

(a) Using 45.0 = 0.5(9.80)t^2 gives t = 3.03 s.

(b) The range is 18.0 × 3.03 = 54.5 m. The vertical impact component is 9.80 × 3.03 = 29.7 m s^-1 downward, so the impact speed is 34.7 m s^-1 at 58.8° below horizontal.

(c) Drag opposes the instantaneous velocity. It reduces the horizontal component throughout the flight and limits the vertical component, so the path has a shorter range, is not symmetric, and the impact speed is lower than the ideal value.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the vertical displacement relationship with zero initial vertical speed.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates a fall time of 3.03 s.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the horizontal range as 54.5 m.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the downward velocity component as 29.7 m s^-1.

Part b (1 mark)

Combines the perpendicular components to obtain 34.7 m s^-1 at 58.8 degrees below horizontal.

Part c (1 mark)

States that drag acts opposite the instantaneous velocity.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that the horizontal component and hence range are reduced.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that the downward component is limited and the impact speed is reduced.

Question 2

(a) g = GM/r^2 = 0.926 m s^-2.

(b) v = sqrt(GM/r) = 1.49 × 10^3 m s^-1 and T = 2πr/v = 1.01 × 10^4 s, or 2.81 h.

(c) Kepler's third law gives T2/T1 = (r2/r1)^(3/2) = 1.50^(3/2) = 1.84.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses g = GM/r^2 with the distance measured from the asteroid centre.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates 0.926 m s^-2 with an appropriate unit.

Part b (1 mark)

Equates gravitational acceleration to centripetal acceleration.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the orbital speed as 1.49 × 10^3 m s^-1.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the period as 1.01 × 10^4 s or 2.81 h.

Part c (1 mark)

Applies the period-radius power relationship for the same central mass.

Part c (1 mark)

Obtains a period ratio of 1.84.

Question 3

(a) E = ΔV/d = 3.00 × 10^4 V m^-1.

(b) F = qE = 9.60 × 10^-15 N and a = F/m = 1.50 × 10^11 m s^-2 in the electric-field direction.

(c) W = qΔV = 3.84 × 10^-16 J = 2.40 × 10^3 eV.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the uniform-field relationship E = delta V/d.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates 3.00 × 10^4 V m^-1.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the electric force as 9.60 × 10^-15 N.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates 1.50 × 10^11 m s^-2 in the field direction.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates the transferred energy as 3.84 × 10^-16 J.

Part c (1 mark)

Converts the result to 2.40 × 10^3 eV.

Question 4

Indicative answer: B = μ0I/(2πr) = (2.00 × 10^-7)(8.00)/0.0500 = 3.20 × 10^-5 T. The right-hand rule gives a direction into the page at a point east of an upward current.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (1 mark)

Selects the long-straight-conductor field relationship.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Calculates 3.20 × 10^-5 T.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Uses the right-hand rule to identify the field as into the page.

Question 5

Indicative answer: The downward magnetic flux through the ring decreases as the north pole is withdrawn. The ring produces a downward field to oppose that decrease, requiring a clockwise induced current when viewed from above.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (1 mark)

Identifies the decreasing downward magnetic flux.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Applies Lenz's law to require an induced downward field.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Uses the right-hand rule to obtain a clockwise current viewed from above.

Question 6

(a) Δy = λL/d = (600 × 10^-9)(2.00)/(0.250 × 10^-3) = 4.80 × 10^-3 m, or 4.80 mm.

(b) Bright fringes occur where path difference gives waves in phase and constructive interference; dark fringes occur where the waves arrive out of phase and destructively interfere. Since Δy is proportional to wavelength, a longer wavelength produces wider fringe spacing.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Converts the wavelength and slit separation consistently to SI units.

Part a (1 mark)

Applies the double-slit fringe-spacing relationship.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates a separation of 4.80 mm.

Part b (1 mark)

Links bright fringes with in-phase arrival and constructive interference.

Part b (1 mark)

Links dark fringes with destructive interference from out-of-phase arrival.

Part b (1 mark)

Predicts and justifies an increase in fringe spacing for longer wavelength.

Question 7

Indicative answer: Reflection reverses the photon momentum, so the momentum transfer is twice that for absorption. F = 2P/c = 2.67 × 10^-5 N and a = F/m = 3.33 × 10^-8 m s^-2.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (2 marks)

Relates reflected photon momentum to F = 2P/c and explains the factor of two.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Calculates the force as 2.67 × 10^-5 N.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Calculates the acceleration as 3.33 × 10^-8 m s^-2.

Question 8

(a) The photon energy is hf = 4.81 × 10^-19 J = 3.00 eV. Therefore Kmax = 1.00 eV = 1.60 × 10^-19 J and the stopping potential is 1.00 V.

(b) More photons arrive per second, so the emitted-electron rate and photocurrent increase, but each photon has unchanged energy and Kmax does not increase.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the photon energy as about 3.00 eV.

Part a (1 mark)

Subtracts the work function to obtain Kmax = 1.00 eV or 1.60 × 10^-19 J.

Part a (1 mark)

Determines a stopping potential of 1.00 V.

Part b (1 mark)

States that photocurrent increases while maximum kinetic energy remains unchanged.

Question 9

(a) ΔE = 7.00 eV = 1.12 × 10^-18 J, so f = ΔE/h = 1.69 × 10^15 Hz.

(b) The smallest energy step is -3.00 eV to -5.00 eV, so ΔE = 2.00 eV and f = 4.83 × 10^14 Hz.

(c) A population inversion makes stimulated emission more likely than absorption. A metastable upper state holds atoms long enough for the inversion to form. An incident matching photon then triggers an identical photon, building coherent monochromatic light.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Determines the transition energy as 7.00 eV or 1.12 × 10^-18 J.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the required frequency as 1.69 × 10^15 Hz.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies the -3.00 eV to -5.00 eV transition as the smallest energy difference.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the lowest frequency as 4.83 × 10^14 Hz.

Part c (1 mark)

Links population inversion with stimulated emission predominating over absorption.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that a metastable state provides time to establish the inversion.

Part c (1 mark)

Connects stimulated emission with identical, coherent photons.

Question 10

Indicative answer: Let x be the distance from +2.00 nC. Equating field magnitudes gives 2/x^2 = 8/(0.300 - x)^2, so 0.300 - x = 2x and x = 0.100 m. Between like charges the fields oppose; the point must be closer to the smaller charge to make its weaker source field equal in magnitude.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (1 mark)

Recognises that the two fields oppose only in the region between the like charges.

Integrated response (2 marks)

Equates the inverse-square field magnitudes and solves the distance ratio correctly.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Locates the point 0.100 m from the +2.00 nC charge.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Explains physically why the zero point is closer to the smaller charge.

Question 11

(a) A line through the trend has gradient approximately (4.79 - 1.20)/(20.0 - 5.00) = 0.239 V Hz^-1.

(b) The data are approximately linear and the extrapolated intercept is close to zero, supporting direct proportionality within the scatter. The small departures from a perfect line mean the conclusion should be qualified by measurement uncertainty.

(c) Keep the coil geometry/turns and magnetic-field strength fixed. Repeat each frequency and average the peak emf, using electronic frequency measurement to reduce speed variation.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses well-separated points on the overall trend rather than adjacent noisy values.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains a gradient near 0.240 V Hz^-1 with its unit.

Part b (1 mark)

Identifies the approximately linear trend.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses the near-zero intercept as evidence for direct proportionality.

Part b (1 mark)

Qualifies the conclusion using scatter or measurement uncertainty.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies two relevant controlled factors such as coil geometry, turns or field strength.

Part c (1 mark)

Proposes repeat measurements and averaging or an equivalent improvement tied to reduced uncertainty.

Question 12

(a) γ = 1/sqrt(1 - 0.980^2) = 5.03.

(b) t = γt0 = 1.31 × 10^-7 s and d = vt = 38.5 m.

(c) Without dilation the mean distance would be vt0 = 7.64 m. A substantial population beyond 30 m is consistent with the longer detector-frame lifetime predicted by special relativity and not with the undilated Newtonian estimate.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Substitutes v/c = 0.980 into the Lorentz-factor relationship.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates gamma as 5.03.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses the proper lifetime in t = gamma t0.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the dilated lifetime as 1.31 × 10^-7 s.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the detector-frame travel distance as 38.5 m.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates or states the undilated distance as about 7.64 m.

Part c (1 mark)

Links detections beyond 30 m to the quantitatively larger relativistic lifetime.

Question 13

(a) For a 45.0° launch at equal heights, R = v^2/g, so R is linear in v^2. A best-fit gradient is approximately 0.102 s^2 m^-1.

(b) g = 1/gradient ≈ 9.80 m s^-2. The percentage difference is negligible at the precision of the data, so the result agrees with the accepted value.

(c) A manually judged landing point produces random range uncertainty. Use video or carbon paper to locate first contact, repeat and average each speed, and measure launch speed immediately after release with photogates.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses R = v^2/g for the stated 45-degree equal-height launch.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains why v squared is the appropriate horizontal variable.

Part a (1 mark)

Determines a best-fit gradient near 0.102 s^2 m^-1.

Part b (1 mark)

Recognises that g is the reciprocal of the gradient.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates g close to 9.80 m s^-2.

Part b (1 mark)

Makes a justified comparison using precision or percentage difference.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies a specific limitation and explains its effect on the range data.

Part c (2 marks)

Proposes two relevant improvements tied to landing-point, repeat or launch-speed uncertainty.

Question 14

Indicative answer: At nucleon level n → p + e^- + anti-nu_e. At quark level one down quark changes to an up quark: udd → uud + W^-, followed by W^- → e^- + anti-nu_e. Charge is 0 on each side, baryon number remains 1, and electronic lepton number is 0 because +1 for the electron and -1 for the antineutrino sum to zero.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (1 mark)

Writes the complete nucleon-level beta-minus reaction.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Identifies the down-to-up quark conversion and W-minus boson.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Demonstrates charge and baryon-number conservation.

Integrated response (2 marks)

Correctly assigns electron and antineutrino lepton numbers and demonstrates electronic-lepton-number conservation.

Question 15

(a) Vs/Vp = Ns/Np, so Vs = 240(60/1200) = 12.0 V rms.

(b) Is = P/Vs = 36.0/12.0 = 3.00 A.

(c) Alternating current produces a changing magnetic flux in the common core, which links the secondary and induces an emf. A steady direct current produces no continuing flux change after switching, so it does not maintain a secondary emf.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses the voltage-turns ratio for one primary-secondary pair.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates 12.0 V rms.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the secondary current as 3.00 A.

Part c (1 mark)

Links alternating primary current to changing core flux and induced secondary emf.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains why steady direct current cannot maintain the induced emf.

Question 16

(a) The greatest photon energy is eΔV = 1.28 × 10^-14 J, so fmax = eΔV/h = 1.93 × 10^19 Hz.

(b) λmin = c/fmax = 1.55 × 10^-11 m. The continuous spectrum occurs because electrons lose variable fractions of their kinetic energy during braking interactions, producing photons over a range of energies.

(c) More electrons strike the target each second, so X-ray intensity increases. The maximum frequency and characteristic frequencies remain unchanged because electron energy and target material are unchanged.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Equates maximum photon energy to the electron energy e delta V.

Part a (1 mark)

Converts 80.0 kV and calculates 1.28 × 10^-14 J.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates fmax = 1.93 × 10^19 Hz.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses c = f lambda to calculate 1.55 × 10^-11 m.

Part b (2 marks)

Explains the continuum through variable electron energy loss during deceleration.

Part c (1 mark)

Predicts an increase in X-ray intensity.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains why the maximum and characteristic frequencies do not change.

Question 17

Indicative answer: Initial momentum is zero, so pC = -(pA + pB) = 6.00 kg m s^-1 west plus 8.00 kg m s^-1 south. Its magnitude is 10.0 kg m s^-1 and its direction is 53.1° south of west.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (1 mark)

Uses conservation of momentum to give fragment C westward and southward components.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Calculates the magnitude as 10.0 kg m s^-1.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Calculates the direction as 53.1 degrees south of west or an equivalent bearing.

Question 18

(a) F = qvB = 9.60 × 10^-14 N. For a positive charge, the right-hand rule gives a force north on the page.

(b) r = mv/(qB) = (1.67 × 10^-27)(2.00 × 10^6)/[(1.60 × 10^-19)(0.300)] = 6.96 × 10^-2 m.

(c) The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the instantaneous velocity, so it supplies centripetal acceleration and does no work. Kinetic energy and speed remain constant.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses F = qvB for perpendicular velocity and field.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates 9.60 × 10^-14 N directed north.

Part b (1 mark)

Equates magnetic force with the centripetal-force requirement.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates a radius of 6.96 × 10^-2 m.

Part c (1 mark)

Explains that perpendicular magnetic force does no work and therefore does not change speed.

Question 19

Indicative answer: Independent detectors can verify that a signal is not local instrumental noise, and separated sites provide timing information that improves source direction and supports shared analysis. Common model assumptions or a systematic calibration method could still bias all inferred source properties, so agreement alone does not eliminate every limitation.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (1 mark)

Explains independent verification against local noise or artefacts.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Explains how separated timing or shared expertise improves localisation or analysis.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Identifies a plausible shared systematic or model limitation.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Forms a qualified conclusion about the strength rather than certainty of the evidence.

Question 20

(a) p = sqrt(2meV) = 6.61 × 10^-24 kg m s^-1 and λ = h/p = 1.00 × 10^-10 m.

(b) d sinθ = λ gives sinθ = 0.500 and θ = 30.0°.

(c) Each electron is detected as a localised event, while many events build an interference distribution associated with a wave. Increasing voltage increases momentum, decreases de Broglie wavelength and moves the first-order maximum to a smaller angle.

(d) Use a position-sensitive detector farther from the crystal and calibrate its zero angle. The longer baseline increases spatial separation for a given angular difference, while zero calibration reduces systematic angular offset.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Equates electron kinetic energy to e delta V.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains p = sqrt(2meV).

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates momentum as 6.61 × 10^-24 kg m s^-1.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the de Broglie wavelength as 1.00 × 10^-10 m.

Part b (1 mark)

Applies the first-order grating relationship to the supplied spacing.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates an angle of 30.0 degrees.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies localised electron detections as particle-like evidence.

Part c (1 mark)

Identifies the accumulated interference distribution as wave-like evidence.

Part d (1 mark)

Proposes a relevant improvement to angular or position measurement.

Part d (2 marks)

Explains quantitatively or causally how the improvement reduces random or systematic uncertainty in wavelength.

Question 21

Indicative answer: A matching incident photon stimulates an excited atom to emit a second photon with the same energy, phase and direction. Repetition in a population inversion amplifies one frequency into coherent, monochromatic light. Use an enclosed beam path or wavelength-rated eye protection and never view the beam directly.

Detailed marking criteria

Integrated response (1 mark)

Explains that stimulated emission produces a photon identical in energy, phase and direction.

Integrated response (1 mark)

Links repeated stimulated emission in a population inversion to coherent monochromatic amplification.

Integrated response (1 mark)

States a relevant control for the concentrated laser beam.

Diagnostic Checklist

TopicQuestionsMarksMarks LostAction
Stage 2 science as a human endeavour Q19 4 ___ Review collaboration, model development, application impacts, limitations and public debate.
Stage 2 science inquiry skills Q11, Q13 16 ___ Review experimental design, graphing, uncertainty, evaluation and evidence-based conclusions.
Topic 1.1 - Projectile motion Q1 8 ___ Review component motion, constant acceleration, projectile range and drag.
Topic 1.2 - Forces and momentum Q7, Q17 7 ___ Review impulse, two-dimensional momentum conservation and propulsion.
Topic 1.3 - Circular motion and gravitation Q2 7 ___ Review centripetal motion, gravitational fields, Kepler's laws and satellite orbits.
Topic 1.4 - Relativity Q12 7 ___ Review inertial frames, the two postulates, Lorentz factor, dilation, contraction and relativistic momentum.
Topic 2.1 - Electric fields Q10 5 ___ Review Coulomb's law, superposition, electric fields, conductors and shielding.
Topic 2.2 - Motion of charged particles in electric fields Q3 6 ___ Review potential difference, electric-field work and accelerated charged-particle motion.
Topic 2.3 - Magnetic fields Q4 3 ___ Review magnetic-field direction, straight-conductor fields and superposition.
Topic 2.4 - Motion of charged particles in magnetic fields Q18 5 ___ Review magnetic force, circular charged-particle motion and cyclotrons.
Topic 2.5 - Electromagnetic induction Q5, Q15 8 ___ Review flux, Faraday and Lenz laws, generators, transformers and induction applications.
Topic 3.1 - Wave behaviour of light Q6 6 ___ Review electromagnetic waves, polarisation, interference, double slits and diffraction gratings.
Topic 3.2 - Wave-particle duality Q8, Q16, Q20 23 ___ Review photons, photoelectric evidence, X-rays and de Broglie waves.
Topic 3.3 - Structure of the atom Q9, Q21 10 ___ Review spectra, discrete energy levels, fluorescence and laser operation.
Topic 3.4 - Standard Model Q14 5 ___ Review fundamental particles, gauge bosons, quark composition and conservation laws.

What is included

Question booklets 1 and 2 questions (120 marks)

Links to the current official examination resources supplied separately by the assessment authority

Worked solutions and marking guidance shown online

Diagnostic checklist shown online

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How to use this pack

  1. Attempt: Open the complete paper online and work under the timing and conditions shown on this page.
  2. Mark: Use the supplied worked solutions or response support and marking guidance to check answers and method.
  3. Review: Use the supplied diagnostic or review support to identify the next areas for revision.

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Product at a glance

  • SACE Stage 2 Physics
  • 2026 edition · Pack 0 · v2.0
  • 1 online paper
  • Free online view · no checkout or PDF download
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Questions about this exam pack

What is included in Physics Free Online - Pack 0?

Pack 0 includes one full-length showcase paper, worked solutions, marking guidance and diagnostic checklists, all shown online.

Is Pack 0 really free?

Yes. Pack 0 can be read online without checkout or a monthly subscription.

What does Pack 0 mean?

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Independent practice resource

SACE Stage 2 subjects and examinations are administered by the SACE Board of South Australia. Skill Align is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with, authorised by, sponsored by, approved by, or endorsed by the SACE Board of South Australia or the South Australian Government.

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2026 exam timetable reference View SACE 2026 timetable
  • Written examination Thu 5 Nov 2026 9:00 am Upcoming10 days left

Times are South Australian local time. Check your school's day-by-day instructions and any special arrangements.