Skill Align Mathematics Applications Year 12 Section Two Calculator-assumed for WACE - 2026 Edition
Original Skill Align practice examination content
- Paper
- Section Two Calculator-assumed Question and Response Book Showcase
- Reading
- 10 minutes reading time
- Writing
- 100 minutes
- Assessment
- 102 marks
Standard items: pens, pencils including coloured pencils, sharpener, correction fluid or tape, eraser, ruler and highlighters. Special items: drawing instruments, templates, notes on two unfolded sheets of A4 paper, and up to three calculators, which may include scientific, graphic and CAS calculators. Formula sheet (retained from Section One). Candidates are assumed to have CAS capability. An examination changeover period of up to 15 minutes applies, during which candidates are not permitted to work.
Section Two
Answer all 9 questions. This section contributes 65% of the examination. For any question or part question worth more than two marks, valid working or justification is required to receive full marks.
Question 1
10 marksQuestion 2
11 marksQuestion 3
12 marksQuestion 4
11 marksQuestion 5
11 marksQuestion 6
10 marksQuestion 7
12 marksQuestion 8
13 marksQuestion 9
12 marksWorked Solutions And Marking Guide
Section Two Question 1
(a) The original pairs give r=0.547; the altered pairs give r=0.984. Sorting makes a moderate positive association appear very strong.
Keep the original pairings for the first calculation and use y-values 15,20,23,27,28,31 for the second.
(b) The site with x=2 actually has y=23, not 15; the site with x=12 has y=27, not 31. Correlation depends on the pairs, not just the separate lists. Sort complete paired records so each site's x and y remain together.
The marginal values are unchanged, but the measured relationship has been replaced.
(c) The observations show association and do not establish causation. Site size or staffing could influence both variables. Randomly allocate comparable sites to different training-hour schedules and compare outcomes while controlling other conditions.
Accept another plausible confounder and a defensible controlled comparison.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining the original correlation 0.547; 1 mark for obtaining the altered correlation 0.984; 1 mark for contrasting moderate and very strong positive association.
- Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for identifying one specific broken pair; 1 mark for identifying a second specific broken pair; 1 mark for explaining why preserving separate lists does not preserve association; 1 mark for requiring complete paired records to move together.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for distinguishing association from causation; 1 mark for identifying a plausible common influence; 1 mark for proposing a controlled investigation that addresses confounding.
Section Two Question 2
(a) frac12(((300+k) / (4))+((316+k) / (4)))=112, so 616+2k=896 and k=140. The component means are 110 and 114, whose average is 112.
Set up the given centred average before solving for the original count.
(b) At t=5, average 118 and 119 to obtain 118.5. At t=6, average 119 and 123 to obtain 121. A centred value at t=7 would also require quarter 9, which is unavailable.
Adjacent four-quarter means are centred halfway between their own time positions.
(c) The centred values rise from 112 at quarter 3 to 121 at quarter 6, supporting an upward underlying movement. Only two annual cycles are observed, so repeated seasonal effects cannot yet be distinguished confidently from irregular changes.
Use numerical smoothed evidence and the limited number of repeated seasons.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (4 marks): 1 mark for forming the means for quarters 1-4 and 2-5; 1 mark for equating their average to 112; 1 mark for obtaining the missing count 140; 1 mark for checking the component means 110 and 114.
- Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for using the appropriate adjacent four-quarter windows; 1 mark for obtaining the centred value 118.5 at t=5; 1 mark for obtaining the centred value 121 at t=6; 1 mark for identifying the missing quarter 9 needed at t=7.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for describing upward underlying movement; 1 mark for supporting it with the increase from 112 to 121; 1 mark for linking uncertainty about stable seasonality to only two annual cycles.
Section Two Question 3
(a) A_(n+1)=1.0055A_n+450, A_0=3000. Interest is applied before the end-of-month deposit.
The multiplier acts on the existing balance only.
(b) A_(36)approx$21515.92. Monthly deposits total 36(450)=$16200. Including the initial $3000, total contributions are $19200, so interest earned is 21515.92-19200=$2315.92.
Iterate without premature rounding, then separate all contributed principal from growth.
(c) A_(42)approx$24973.18<$25000<A_(43)approx$25560.53, so the first month is 43.
Compare consecutive recurrence-table entries around the target.
(d) The model is C_(n+1)=1.0055(C_n+450). It gives C_(36)approx$21614.15, about $98.24 more because each deposit earns one additional month of interest.
Move the deposit inside the interest multiplication.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for stating the multiplier 1.0055; 1 mark for stating the end-of-month deposit and initial condition; 1 mark for explaining that interest precedes the deposit.
- Part (b) (3 marks): 1 mark for iterating the recurrence to A_(36); 1 mark for obtaining the balance $21,515.92; 1 mark for subtracting total contributions of $19,200, including the initial $3,000, to obtain $2,315.92 interest.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for locating month 42 below the target; 1 mark for locating month 43 above the target; 1 mark for concluding that month 43 is the first threshold month.
- Part (d) (3 marks): 1 mark for modelling the beginning-of-month timing correctly; 1 mark for obtaining the 36-month balance $21,614.15; 1 mark for quantifying and explaining the approximately $98.24 advantage.
Section Two Question 4
(a) At A, inflow and outflow are both 9; at B, both are 6; at C, both are 7. At D, inflow is 4+4=8 but outflow is 7. One unit per hour would accumulate at D, contrary to the no-storage condition.
Capacity compliance alone does not ensure conservation.
(b) Set AC=6, AD=3, CT=8. Then A sends 6+3=9, C sends 6+2=8, and D sends 3+4=7. B remains balanced at 6. The three changed flows are within capacities 6, 4 and 8; all other capacities remain respected. The total flow is 15.
Divert one unit from A-D to A-C-T without altering either source flow.
(c) The maximum flow is 15. The cut separating T from all other vertices contains Cto T and Dto T, with capacity 8+7=15. This equals the feasible flow, proving optimality.
Match a feasible flow to an upper bound supplied by a cut.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (4 marks): 1 mark for checking equal inflow and outflow at A and B; 1 mark for checking equal inflow and outflow at C; 1 mark for finding inflow 8 and outflow 7 at D; 1 mark for explaining the prohibited accumulation at D.
- Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for setting AC=6 and AD=3; 1 mark for setting CT=8; 1 mark for checking conservation at the affected intermediate vertices; 1 mark for checking the changed flows against their capacities.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for stating the feasible total flow 15; 1 mark for identifying the sink cut with capacity 15; 1 mark for using equality of flow and cut capacity to prove optimality.
Section Two Question 5
(a) A finishes at day 4 and B at day 5. C runs from day 4 to day 10; D runs from day 5 to day 8. E runs from day 10 to day 14, so the project finishes at day 14.
A forward scan gives the precedence-only schedule.
(b) C before D: C runs 4-10, D runs 10-13, and E finishes at 17. D before C: D runs 5-8, C runs 8-14, and E finishes at 18. The minimum is 17 days. Continuous, non-overlapping activities C and D must occur in one of these two orders; idle time cannot improve either finish.
Apply both predecessor readiness and crew availability.
(c) Yes. Let the first crew perform C from 4 to 10, and the second perform D from 6 to 9. A is complete before C starts; both A and B are complete before D starts. E can run from 10 to 14. The dependent chain A-C-E takes 4+6+4=14 days, so no schedule can finish earlier.
Use the stated availability interval without shortening any activity.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for placing C from day 4 to day 10; 1 mark for placing D from day 5 to day 8 after both predecessors; 1 mark for placing E from day 10 to day 14.
- Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for obtaining a 17-day finish with C before D; 1 mark for obtaining an 18-day finish with D before C; 1 mark for explaining why the two orders exhaust the continuous non-overlapping schedules; 1 mark for selecting the minimum duration 17 days.
- Part (c) (4 marks): 1 mark for scheduling D continuously from day 6 to day 9 with the second crew; 1 mark for scheduling C from day 4 to day 10 with the first crew; 1 mark for checking predecessors and scheduling E from day 10 to day 14; 1 mark for proving the 14-day lower bound from A-C-E.
Section Two Question 6
(a) The total is 2+6+1+4=13 technician-hours. All jobs finish after max(2,6,1,4)=6 hours. Concurrent jobs contribute separately to total labour, but elapsed completion time is determined by the longest assigned job.
Distinguish a sum from a maximum.
(b) Use A2,B3,C1,D4, taking 2,3,5,4 hours, so all finish after 5 hours. Job 1 takes at least 5 hours with any technician; this lower bound proves that 5 hours is optimal.
Construct a feasible one-to-one assignment and use the unavoidable duration of job 1.
(c) No. Under the five-hour deadline, A must do job 2, C must do job 1, and D must do job 4, leaving job 3 for B. This forces total labour 2+3+5+4=14, exceeding the 13-hour limit.
A minimum-total assignment need not minimise elapsed completion time.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining total labour 13 technician-hours; 1 mark for obtaining elapsed completion time 6 hours; 1 mark for explaining why concurrent work uses a maximum for elapsed time.
- Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for giving the one-to-one assignment A2,B3,C1,D4; 1 mark for checking all four assigned durations are at most 5; 1 mark for identifying the 5-hour lower bound for job 1; 1 mark for concluding the minimum elapsed completion time is 5 hours.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for identifying the assignments forced by the five-hour deadline; 1 mark for calculating the forced total of 14 technician-hours; 1 mark for concluding that the deadline and labour limit cannot both be met.
Section Two Question 7
(a) A: 6.0411%; B: 5.8000%; C: 5.8439%.
Use the compounding frequency for each nominal rate.
(b) A, then C, then B. Nominal rates use different compounding frequencies and are not directly comparable.
Compare rates on a common effective basis.
(c) A: $22489.42; B: $22387.28; C: $22405.85.
Use each plan's actual period rate and number of periods.
(d) Plan B then grows $19920 to about $22297.73. Plan A remains best at $22489.42.
Apply the fee before compounding and compare final values.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for converting Plan A with 12 compounding periods; 1 mark for retaining Plan B as the stated effective rate; 1 mark for converting Plan C with four compounding periods.
- Part (b) (3 marks): 1 mark for ranking A above C above B; 1 mark for identifying different compounding frequencies; 1 mark for explaining the need for a common effective rate.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining Plan A's value to cents; 1 mark for obtaining Plan B's value to cents; 1 mark for obtaining Plan C's value to cents.
- Part (d) (3 marks): 1 mark for reducing Plan B's invested principal to $19,920; 1 mark for obtaining its fee-adjusted final value about $22,297.73; 1 mark for selecting Plan A using the final-value comparison.
Section Two Question 8
(a) For L_(all), the absolute errors are 1.85, 2.70 and 3.55, giving a mean of 2.70. For L_(recent), they are 0.75, 0.30 and 0.15, giving a mean of 0.40. Select L_(recent).
The comparison uses observations outside both fitting windows, not in-sample fit.
(b) L_(recent)(18)=32.4+7.45(18)=166.50.
Substitute month 18 into the selected linear trend.
(c) 166.50(1.08)=179.82. Capacity 170 is insufficient by 9.82, so another arrangement is required.
Restore the seasonal effect before comparing with capacity. Allow correct follow-through from part (b).
(d) The recent line was fitted to only six observations, and month 18 lies beyond both the fitting and checking periods. For example, compare each new actual demand with its reseasonalised forecast and review / refit after absolute error exceeds 10 units for three consecutive months. Repeated large errors would suggest the model no longer supports the capacity decision. Other defensible rules are acceptable; the numbers 10 and three are examples only.
Credit any two valid limitations and any clearly defined, justified rule. A numerical threshold is not mandatory.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining mean absolute forecast error 2.70 for the all-months line; 1 mark for obtaining mean absolute forecast error 0.40 for the recent line; 1 mark for selecting the recent line using the stated smaller-error criterion.
- Part (b) (3 marks): 1 mark for using the selected line consistently; 1 mark for substituting t=18; 1 mark for obtaining the deseasonalised forecast 166.50, or a correct follow-through value.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for multiplying by the month-18 seasonal index; 1 mark for calculating the reseasonalised demand consistently; 1 mark for comparing with capacity 170 and quantifying the difference.
- Part (d) (4 marks): 1 mark for giving one valid limitation, such as the short fitting window; 1 mark for giving a second distinct valid limitation, such as extrapolation or only three checking months; 1 mark for stating a clear monitoring and review / refitting rule; 1 mark for explaining why the proposed rule would help detect unreliable forecasts.
Section Two Question 9
(a) The total is 4+3+9+2+6+4=28 km. Each of A, B, C and D has degree 3, so all four are odd. A closed Eulerian trail requires every degree to be even.
Count each physical road once and apply the closed-trail condition.
(b) Pair AB with CD: 4+4=8. Pair AC with BD: 3+6=9. Pair AD with BC: 7+2=9, since A-C-D is shorter than direct AD. The minimum extra distance is 8 km.
Compare path distances rather than automatically taking the direct road.
(c) One route is A-B-C-A-D-C-D-B-A. It uses AB and CD twice and every other road once, for 28+8=36 km. Other valid Eulerian routes in this augmented network are acceptable.
Demonstrate that the lower bound from the pairing comparison is attainable.
(d) Only B and C need their degrees changed to even. Repeat BC, the shortest B-C path of 2 km; A and D remain odd endpoints of a semi-Eulerian trail. The minimum total becomes 28+2=30 km.
An open trail has exactly its two endpoints odd.
Mark allocation
- Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining total road length 28 km; 1 mark for identifying all four vertices as degree 3; 1 mark for using the even-degree requirement to rule out a closed route using every road once.
- Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for obtaining pairing total 8 for AB and CD; 1 mark for obtaining pairing total 9 for AC and BD; 1 mark for using the 7-km shortest A-D path to obtain the third pairing total 9; 1 mark for selecting the minimum extra distance 8 km.
- Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for giving a closed route from A covering every road; 1 mark for repeating only AB and CD once each; 1 mark for obtaining total length 36 km.
- Part (d) (2 marks): 1 mark for identifying repetition of BC as the minimum 2-km addition; 1 mark for obtaining the new minimum total 30 km with endpoints A and D.
Diagnostic Checklist
| Topic | Questions | Marks | Marks Lost | Action |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Bivariate Data Analysis | Q1 | 10 | ___ | Review the bivariate data analysis methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Time Series Analysis | Q2 | 11 | ___ | Review the time series analysis methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Loans, Investments and Annuities | Q3 | 12 | ___ | Review the loans, investments and annuities methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Networks and Decision Mathematics | Q4 | 11 | ___ | Review the networks and decision mathematics methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Project Planning and Networks | Q5 | 11 | ___ | Review the project planning and networks methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Assignment Problems | Q6 | 10 | ___ | Review the assignment problems methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Financial Modelling | Q7 | 12 | ___ | Review the financial modelling methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Integrated Modelling | Q8 | 13 | ___ | Review the integrated modelling methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |
| Graphs and Networks | Q9 | 12 | ___ | Review the graphs and networks methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions. |