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WACE Mathematics Applications — Section Two Calculator-assumed Question and Response Book

WACE Mathematics Applications — Section Two Calculator-assumed Question and Response Book — Free Online Pack 0

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WACE Year 12 Final Exam 2026 Edition - Pack 0 v2.0
Updated 8 Sep 2026

Practise more exam papers.Build confidence for unfamiliar questions.

An original exam simulation for this course

This pack is an original, independently prepared exam simulation. The governing document for this 2026 edition is identified in the course alignment above. Numbered packs in this course series are distinct resources for repeated full-paper exam practice. It is not an official SCSA resource, and Skill Align is not affiliated with or endorsed by SCSA.

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WACE Mathematics Applications — Section Two Calculator-assumed Question and Response Book

9 questions

102 marks

Reading: 10 minutes reading time · Writing: 100 minutes

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What Pack 0 covers

These areas are aggregated from the reviewed source for this exact pack. Question wording and answers remain private.

Covered in this pack

  • Bivariate data analysis 19 marks · 2 questions
  • Financial modelling 12 marks · 1 question
  • Graphs and networks 23 marks · 2 questions
  • Loans, investments and annuities 22 marks · 2 questions
  • Networks and decision mathematics 21 marks · 2 questions
  • Project planning 22 marks · 2 questions
  • Time series analysis 34 marks · 3 questions

Read WACE Mathematics Applications — Section Two Calculator-assumed Question and Response Book online

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Skill Align Mathematics Applications Year 12 Section Two Calculator-assumed for WACE - 2026 Edition

Original Skill Align practice examination content

Paper
Section Two Calculator-assumed Question and Response Book Showcase
Reading
10 minutes reading time
Writing
100 minutes
Assessment
102 marks

Standard items: pens, pencils including coloured pencils, sharpener, correction fluid or tape, eraser, ruler and highlighters. Special items: drawing instruments, templates, notes on two unfolded sheets of A4 paper, and up to three calculators, which may include scientific, graphic and CAS calculators. Formula sheet (retained from Section One). Candidates are assumed to have CAS capability. An examination changeover period of up to 15 minutes applies, during which candidates are not permitted to work.

Section Two

Answer all 9 questions. This section contributes 65% of the examination. For any question or part question worth more than two marks, valid working or justification is required to receive full marks.

Question 1

10 marks
Six sites report weekly training hours x and completed safety checks y. Each column belongs to one site. begin(array)(c|rrrrrr) x&2&4&6&8&10&12 hline y&23&15&28&20&31&27 end(array) An analyst leaves the x-list in place but sorts only the y-list into ascending order before calculating a correlation coefficient. Use technology to audit the analysis.
(a) 3 marks
Calculate Pearson's r for the original pairs and for the analyst's altered pairs, to three decimal places. Compare the apparent strengths of association.
(b) 4 marks
The analyst claims the altered coefficient is valid because neither list has lost any values. Refute this claim using two specific sites and explain how to sort the data correctly.
(c) 3 marks
A manager uses the original positive correlation to claim that increasing training hours will necessarily cause more completed checks. Evaluate the claim and propose one change to the investigation that would strengthen a causal conclusion.

Question 2

11 marks
Eight consecutive quarterly counts are recorded below. The Quarter 3 count k is missing. begin(array)(c|rrrrrrrr) t&1&2&3&4&5&6&7&8 hline y&80&100&k&120&96&116&144&136 end(array) A verified spreadsheet reports a centred four-quarter moving average of 112 at t=3. It averages the mean for quarters 1-4 with the mean for quarters 2-5. Use this centring convention throughout.
(a) 4 marks
Recover the missing count and check it against both component four-quarter means.
(b) 4 marks
Calculate the centred four-quarter moving averages at t=5 and t=6. Explain why this convention gives no centred value at t=7 from the supplied observations.
(c) 3 marks
Use the centred values to describe the underlying movement. Explain why these eight counts are insufficient to establish a stable seasonal pattern with confidence.

Question 3

12 marks
An account starts with $3000, earns 0.55% per month and receives a $450 deposit at the end of each month. Use a recurrence table or financial technology.
(a) 3 marks
Write a recurrence, including the initial condition, and explain how it records transaction timing.
(b) 3 marks
Find the balance and total interest earned after 36 months.
(c) 3 marks
Find the first month in which the balance exceeds $25000, and show the threshold evidence.
(d) 3 marks
A second plan deposits at the beginning of each month. Model and compare its 36-month balance.

Question 4

11 marks
The directed network labels hourly capacities. The table is a proposed flow, in units per hour, with no storage allowed at intermediate vertices. begin(array)(c|rrrrrrrrr) Arc&SA&SB&AC&AD&BC&BD&CT&DT&CD hline Flow&9&6&5&4&2&4&7&7&0 end(array) Every listed flow is within its arc capacity. Use flow conservation and the maximum-flow / minimum-cut theorem to audit the proposal.
Diagram Preview
1086456872S sourceABCDT sink
(a) 4 marks
Check conservation at every intermediate vertex and explain why the proposed flow is nevertheless infeasible.
(b) 4 marks
Keep both source flows and the zero flow on CD unchanged. Repair the proposal by changing only AC, AD and CT. State their new flows and verify the repair.
(c) 3 marks
Prove that the repaired flow is maximum by identifying a minimum cut.

Question 5

11 marks
The activity-on-node network gives durations in days. Time is measured from day 0. Each activity must run continuously once started. Activities C and D need the same specialist crew, so they cannot overlap unless a second crew is supplied. Other activities have separate crews. Use technology or a scheduling table to compare the possible orders.
Diagram Preview
StartA: 4 daysB: 5 daysC: 6 daysD: 3 daysE: 4 daysFinish
(a) 3 marks
Initially ignore the shared-crew restriction. Find the earliest start and finish times of C and D and the earliest project finish.
(b) 4 marks
With only one specialist crew, compare the earliest schedules for C before D and D before C. Determine the minimum project duration and justify why these two orders cover all possibilities.
(c) 4 marks
A second specialist crew is available only from day 6 to day 9. Determine whether the original 14-day finish is now attainable. Give a feasible schedule and prove that it cannot finish earlier.

Question 6

10 marks
Four technicians A-D must each do one different job from 1-4. All jobs start together, and technicians work independently. The table gives completion times in hours. begin(array)(c|rrrr) &1&2&3&4 hline A&9&2&7&8 B&6&4&3&7 C&5&8&1&8 D&7&6&9&4 end(array) A correct Hungarian algorithm calculation minimises total technician-hours with A2,B1,C3,D4. The manager instead wants the earliest time at which all four jobs are finished.
(a) 3 marks
For the supplied minimum-total assignment, calculate the total technician-hours and the elapsed time until all jobs finish. Explain the difference.
(b) 4 marks
Find an assignment that finishes all jobs within five hours and prove that no assignment can finish sooner.
(c) 3 marks
Can the manager satisfy both a five-hour completion deadline and a limit of 13 total technician-hours? Justify your answer by examining which assignments the deadline permits.

Question 7

12 marks
Three two-year investments advertise: Plan A: 5.88% nominal p.a. compounded monthly. Plan B: 5.80% effective p.a. Plan C: 5.72% nominal p.a. compounded quarterly. Use financial technology and retain full precision until the final amount.
(a) 3 marks
Convert each advertised rate to an effective annual rate.
(b) 3 marks
Rank the plans by effective annual rate and explain why the nominal percentages alone are insufficient.
(c) 3 marks
Find the value of a $20000 investment after two years under each plan.
(d) 3 marks
Plan B charges an $80 establishment fee deducted immediately. Reassess the choice.

Question 8

13 marks
For monthly demand D, technology fitted two least-squares linear trends to deseasonalised observations: L_(all)(t)=48.2+6.15t,qquad L_(recent)(t)=32.4+7.45t. The first uses months 1-12; the second uses months 7-12. Neither line was refitted when these later deseasonalised observations became available: begin(array)(c|rrr) t&13&14&15 hline D&130&137&144 end(array) For this decision, select the line with the smaller mean absolute forecast error across months 13-15: the average of |D-hat D|. Month 18 has seasonal index 1.08.
(a) 3 marks
Calculate the mean absolute forecast error for each line on the three later observations and select a line using the stated criterion.
(b) 3 marks
Use the selected line to find the deseasonalised month-18 forecast.
(c) 3 marks
Reseasonalise the forecast and determine whether two sessions of capacity 85 are sufficient.
(d) 4 marks
Give two reasons to use the selected line cautiously. Propose a clearly defined monitoring / refitting rule and explain why it would be useful.

Question 9

12 marks
An inspection vehicle must travel along every road in the undirected network at least once. Road lengths are in kilometres; a road can be used in either direction. Initially the vehicle must start and finish at A. To make a closed inspection route, all vertex degrees must be even after counting repeated road traversals as extra edges. For four odd-degree vertices, compare all three ways to pair them and repeat a shortest path for each pair.
Diagram Preview
439264ABCD
(a) 3 marks
Find the total road length and the degree of each vertex. Explain why travelling along every road exactly once cannot give the required closed route.
(b) 4 marks
Compare the three pairings using shortest-path distances and determine the minimum extra distance required for a closed route.
(c) 3 marks
Give a shortest closed inspection route from A, including any repeated roads, and calculate its total length.
(d) 2 marks
The vehicle may now finish at D instead of returning to A. Determine the minimum extra distance and the new minimum total length.

WACE and ATAR course examinations are administered by the School Curriculum and Standards Authority (SCSA). Skill Align is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with, authorised by, sponsored by, approved by, or endorsed by SCSA or the Western Australian Government.

Copyright (c) 2026 Skill Align. Free for personal, non-commercial online viewing at https://skillalign.au. You may share the Skill Align page link. Except as permitted by law or with Skill Align's prior written permission, the pack itself must not be resold, copied, redistributed, republished, automatically extracted, or uploaded to a question bank.

Worked Solutions And Marking Guide

Section Two Question 1

(a) The original pairs give r=0.547; the altered pairs give r=0.984. Sorting makes a moderate positive association appear very strong.

Keep the original pairings for the first calculation and use y-values 15,20,23,27,28,31 for the second.

(b) The site with x=2 actually has y=23, not 15; the site with x=12 has y=27, not 31. Correlation depends on the pairs, not just the separate lists. Sort complete paired records so each site's x and y remain together.

The marginal values are unchanged, but the measured relationship has been replaced.

(c) The observations show association and do not establish causation. Site size or staffing could influence both variables. Randomly allocate comparable sites to different training-hour schedules and compare outcomes while controlling other conditions.

Accept another plausible confounder and a defensible controlled comparison.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining the original correlation 0.547; 1 mark for obtaining the altered correlation 0.984; 1 mark for contrasting moderate and very strong positive association.
  • Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for identifying one specific broken pair; 1 mark for identifying a second specific broken pair; 1 mark for explaining why preserving separate lists does not preserve association; 1 mark for requiring complete paired records to move together.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for distinguishing association from causation; 1 mark for identifying a plausible common influence; 1 mark for proposing a controlled investigation that addresses confounding.

Section Two Question 2

(a) frac12(((300+k) / (4))+((316+k) / (4)))=112, so 616+2k=896 and k=140. The component means are 110 and 114, whose average is 112.

Set up the given centred average before solving for the original count.

(b) At t=5, average 118 and 119 to obtain 118.5. At t=6, average 119 and 123 to obtain 121. A centred value at t=7 would also require quarter 9, which is unavailable.

Adjacent four-quarter means are centred halfway between their own time positions.

(c) The centred values rise from 112 at quarter 3 to 121 at quarter 6, supporting an upward underlying movement. Only two annual cycles are observed, so repeated seasonal effects cannot yet be distinguished confidently from irregular changes.

Use numerical smoothed evidence and the limited number of repeated seasons.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (4 marks): 1 mark for forming the means for quarters 1-4 and 2-5; 1 mark for equating their average to 112; 1 mark for obtaining the missing count 140; 1 mark for checking the component means 110 and 114.
  • Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for using the appropriate adjacent four-quarter windows; 1 mark for obtaining the centred value 118.5 at t=5; 1 mark for obtaining the centred value 121 at t=6; 1 mark for identifying the missing quarter 9 needed at t=7.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for describing upward underlying movement; 1 mark for supporting it with the increase from 112 to 121; 1 mark for linking uncertainty about stable seasonality to only two annual cycles.

Section Two Question 3

(a) A_(n+1)=1.0055A_n+450, A_0=3000. Interest is applied before the end-of-month deposit.

The multiplier acts on the existing balance only.

(b) A_(36)approx$21515.92. Monthly deposits total 36(450)=$16200. Including the initial $3000, total contributions are $19200, so interest earned is 21515.92-19200=$2315.92.

Iterate without premature rounding, then separate all contributed principal from growth.

(c) A_(42)approx$24973.18<$25000<A_(43)approx$25560.53, so the first month is 43.

Compare consecutive recurrence-table entries around the target.

(d) The model is C_(n+1)=1.0055(C_n+450). It gives C_(36)approx$21614.15, about $98.24 more because each deposit earns one additional month of interest.

Move the deposit inside the interest multiplication.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for stating the multiplier 1.0055; 1 mark for stating the end-of-month deposit and initial condition; 1 mark for explaining that interest precedes the deposit.
  • Part (b) (3 marks): 1 mark for iterating the recurrence to A_(36); 1 mark for obtaining the balance $21,515.92; 1 mark for subtracting total contributions of $19,200, including the initial $3,000, to obtain $2,315.92 interest.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for locating month 42 below the target; 1 mark for locating month 43 above the target; 1 mark for concluding that month 43 is the first threshold month.
  • Part (d) (3 marks): 1 mark for modelling the beginning-of-month timing correctly; 1 mark for obtaining the 36-month balance $21,614.15; 1 mark for quantifying and explaining the approximately $98.24 advantage.

Section Two Question 4

(a) At A, inflow and outflow are both 9; at B, both are 6; at C, both are 7. At D, inflow is 4+4=8 but outflow is 7. One unit per hour would accumulate at D, contrary to the no-storage condition.

Capacity compliance alone does not ensure conservation.

(b) Set AC=6, AD=3, CT=8. Then A sends 6+3=9, C sends 6+2=8, and D sends 3+4=7. B remains balanced at 6. The three changed flows are within capacities 6, 4 and 8; all other capacities remain respected. The total flow is 15.

Divert one unit from A-D to A-C-T without altering either source flow.

(c) The maximum flow is 15. The cut separating T from all other vertices contains Cto T and Dto T, with capacity 8+7=15. This equals the feasible flow, proving optimality.

Match a feasible flow to an upper bound supplied by a cut.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (4 marks): 1 mark for checking equal inflow and outflow at A and B; 1 mark for checking equal inflow and outflow at C; 1 mark for finding inflow 8 and outflow 7 at D; 1 mark for explaining the prohibited accumulation at D.
  • Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for setting AC=6 and AD=3; 1 mark for setting CT=8; 1 mark for checking conservation at the affected intermediate vertices; 1 mark for checking the changed flows against their capacities.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for stating the feasible total flow 15; 1 mark for identifying the sink cut with capacity 15; 1 mark for using equality of flow and cut capacity to prove optimality.

Section Two Question 5

(a) A finishes at day 4 and B at day 5. C runs from day 4 to day 10; D runs from day 5 to day 8. E runs from day 10 to day 14, so the project finishes at day 14.

A forward scan gives the precedence-only schedule.

(b) C before D: C runs 4-10, D runs 10-13, and E finishes at 17. D before C: D runs 5-8, C runs 8-14, and E finishes at 18. The minimum is 17 days. Continuous, non-overlapping activities C and D must occur in one of these two orders; idle time cannot improve either finish.

Apply both predecessor readiness and crew availability.

(c) Yes. Let the first crew perform C from 4 to 10, and the second perform D from 6 to 9. A is complete before C starts; both A and B are complete before D starts. E can run from 10 to 14. The dependent chain A-C-E takes 4+6+4=14 days, so no schedule can finish earlier.

Use the stated availability interval without shortening any activity.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for placing C from day 4 to day 10; 1 mark for placing D from day 5 to day 8 after both predecessors; 1 mark for placing E from day 10 to day 14.
  • Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for obtaining a 17-day finish with C before D; 1 mark for obtaining an 18-day finish with D before C; 1 mark for explaining why the two orders exhaust the continuous non-overlapping schedules; 1 mark for selecting the minimum duration 17 days.
  • Part (c) (4 marks): 1 mark for scheduling D continuously from day 6 to day 9 with the second crew; 1 mark for scheduling C from day 4 to day 10 with the first crew; 1 mark for checking predecessors and scheduling E from day 10 to day 14; 1 mark for proving the 14-day lower bound from A-C-E.

Section Two Question 6

(a) The total is 2+6+1+4=13 technician-hours. All jobs finish after max(2,6,1,4)=6 hours. Concurrent jobs contribute separately to total labour, but elapsed completion time is determined by the longest assigned job.

Distinguish a sum from a maximum.

(b) Use A2,B3,C1,D4, taking 2,3,5,4 hours, so all finish after 5 hours. Job 1 takes at least 5 hours with any technician; this lower bound proves that 5 hours is optimal.

Construct a feasible one-to-one assignment and use the unavoidable duration of job 1.

(c) No. Under the five-hour deadline, A must do job 2, C must do job 1, and D must do job 4, leaving job 3 for B. This forces total labour 2+3+5+4=14, exceeding the 13-hour limit.

A minimum-total assignment need not minimise elapsed completion time.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining total labour 13 technician-hours; 1 mark for obtaining elapsed completion time 6 hours; 1 mark for explaining why concurrent work uses a maximum for elapsed time.
  • Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for giving the one-to-one assignment A2,B3,C1,D4; 1 mark for checking all four assigned durations are at most 5; 1 mark for identifying the 5-hour lower bound for job 1; 1 mark for concluding the minimum elapsed completion time is 5 hours.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for identifying the assignments forced by the five-hour deadline; 1 mark for calculating the forced total of 14 technician-hours; 1 mark for concluding that the deadline and labour limit cannot both be met.

Section Two Question 7

(a) A: 6.0411%; B: 5.8000%; C: 5.8439%.

Use the compounding frequency for each nominal rate.

(b) A, then C, then B. Nominal rates use different compounding frequencies and are not directly comparable.

Compare rates on a common effective basis.

(c) A: $22489.42; B: $22387.28; C: $22405.85.

Use each plan's actual period rate and number of periods.

(d) Plan B then grows $19920 to about $22297.73. Plan A remains best at $22489.42.

Apply the fee before compounding and compare final values.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for converting Plan A with 12 compounding periods; 1 mark for retaining Plan B as the stated effective rate; 1 mark for converting Plan C with four compounding periods.
  • Part (b) (3 marks): 1 mark for ranking A above C above B; 1 mark for identifying different compounding frequencies; 1 mark for explaining the need for a common effective rate.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining Plan A's value to cents; 1 mark for obtaining Plan B's value to cents; 1 mark for obtaining Plan C's value to cents.
  • Part (d) (3 marks): 1 mark for reducing Plan B's invested principal to $19,920; 1 mark for obtaining its fee-adjusted final value about $22,297.73; 1 mark for selecting Plan A using the final-value comparison.

Section Two Question 8

(a) For L_(all), the absolute errors are 1.85, 2.70 and 3.55, giving a mean of 2.70. For L_(recent), they are 0.75, 0.30 and 0.15, giving a mean of 0.40. Select L_(recent).

The comparison uses observations outside both fitting windows, not in-sample fit.

(b) L_(recent)(18)=32.4+7.45(18)=166.50.

Substitute month 18 into the selected linear trend.

(c) 166.50(1.08)=179.82. Capacity 170 is insufficient by 9.82, so another arrangement is required.

Restore the seasonal effect before comparing with capacity. Allow correct follow-through from part (b).

(d) The recent line was fitted to only six observations, and month 18 lies beyond both the fitting and checking periods. For example, compare each new actual demand with its reseasonalised forecast and review / refit after absolute error exceeds 10 units for three consecutive months. Repeated large errors would suggest the model no longer supports the capacity decision. Other defensible rules are acceptable; the numbers 10 and three are examples only.

Credit any two valid limitations and any clearly defined, justified rule. A numerical threshold is not mandatory.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining mean absolute forecast error 2.70 for the all-months line; 1 mark for obtaining mean absolute forecast error 0.40 for the recent line; 1 mark for selecting the recent line using the stated smaller-error criterion.
  • Part (b) (3 marks): 1 mark for using the selected line consistently; 1 mark for substituting t=18; 1 mark for obtaining the deseasonalised forecast 166.50, or a correct follow-through value.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for multiplying by the month-18 seasonal index; 1 mark for calculating the reseasonalised demand consistently; 1 mark for comparing with capacity 170 and quantifying the difference.
  • Part (d) (4 marks): 1 mark for giving one valid limitation, such as the short fitting window; 1 mark for giving a second distinct valid limitation, such as extrapolation or only three checking months; 1 mark for stating a clear monitoring and review / refitting rule; 1 mark for explaining why the proposed rule would help detect unreliable forecasts.

Section Two Question 9

(a) The total is 4+3+9+2+6+4=28 km. Each of A, B, C and D has degree 3, so all four are odd. A closed Eulerian trail requires every degree to be even.

Count each physical road once and apply the closed-trail condition.

(b) Pair AB with CD: 4+4=8. Pair AC with BD: 3+6=9. Pair AD with BC: 7+2=9, since A-C-D is shorter than direct AD. The minimum extra distance is 8 km.

Compare path distances rather than automatically taking the direct road.

(c) One route is A-B-C-A-D-C-D-B-A. It uses AB and CD twice and every other road once, for 28+8=36 km. Other valid Eulerian routes in this augmented network are acceptable.

Demonstrate that the lower bound from the pairing comparison is attainable.

(d) Only B and C need their degrees changed to even. Repeat BC, the shortest B-C path of 2 km; A and D remain odd endpoints of a semi-Eulerian trail. The minimum total becomes 28+2=30 km.

An open trail has exactly its two endpoints odd.

Mark allocation

  • Part (a) (3 marks): 1 mark for obtaining total road length 28 km; 1 mark for identifying all four vertices as degree 3; 1 mark for using the even-degree requirement to rule out a closed route using every road once.
  • Part (b) (4 marks): 1 mark for obtaining pairing total 8 for AB and CD; 1 mark for obtaining pairing total 9 for AC and BD; 1 mark for using the 7-km shortest A-D path to obtain the third pairing total 9; 1 mark for selecting the minimum extra distance 8 km.
  • Part (c) (3 marks): 1 mark for giving a closed route from A covering every road; 1 mark for repeating only AB and CD once each; 1 mark for obtaining total length 36 km.
  • Part (d) (2 marks): 1 mark for identifying repetition of BC as the minimum 2-km addition; 1 mark for obtaining the new minimum total 30 km with endpoints A and D.

Diagnostic Checklist

TopicQuestionsMarksMarks LostAction
Bivariate Data Analysis Q1 10 ___ Review the bivariate data analysis methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Time Series Analysis Q2 11 ___ Review the time series analysis methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Loans, Investments and Annuities Q3 12 ___ Review the loans, investments and annuities methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Networks and Decision Mathematics Q4 11 ___ Review the networks and decision mathematics methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Project Planning and Networks Q5 11 ___ Review the project planning and networks methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Assignment Problems Q6 10 ___ Review the assignment problems methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Financial Modelling Q7 12 ___ Review the financial modelling methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Integrated Modelling Q8 13 ___ Review the integrated modelling methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.
Graphs and Networks Q9 12 ___ Review the graphs and networks methods, calculator setup, interpretation and justification assessed in the listed questions.

What is included

Section One Calculator-free Question and Response Book Showcase questions (51 marks)

Section Two Calculator-assumed Question and Response Book Showcase questions (102 marks)

Worked solutions and marking guidance shown online

Diagnostic checklist shown online

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