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VCE Physics Units 3&4 — Free Online Pack 0

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VCE Units 3&4 End-of-Year Examination 2026 Edition - Pack 0 v2.0
Updated 9 Oct 2026

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VCE Physics Units 3&4

39 questions

120 marks

Reading: 15 minutes · Writing: 2 hours 30 minutesFree online paper · no PDF download or checkout

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Covered in this pack

  • how-are-fields-used-in-electricity-generation 24 marks · 8 questions
  • how-do-physicists-explain-motion-in-two-dimensions 24 marks · 7 questions
  • how-do-things-move-without-contact 24 marks · 8 questions
  • how-has-understanding-about-the-physical-world-changed 24 marks · 8 questions
  • how-is-scientific-inquiry-used-to-investigate-fields-motion-or-light 24 marks · 8 questions

Read VCE Physics Units 3&4 online

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Skill Align VCE Physics Units 3&4 Practice Examination - 2026 Edition, Pack 0

An original alpine rail and regional energy examination aligned to the current VCE Physics assessment contract.

Paper
Question and Answer Book
Reading
15 minutes
Writing
2 hours 30 minutes
Assessment
120 marks

Use the current VCAA VCE Physics Formula Sheet (provided separately and linked with this pack). One scientific calculator and pre-written notes comprising one folded A3 sheet or two A4 sheets bound together by tape may be used.

Section A - Multiple-choice questions

Answer all 20 questions. Select the correct or best answer. Each question is worth 1 mark.

Question 1

1 mark
A 1200 kg alpine tram accelerates at 1.5 m s⁻² while 1800 N of resistance acts opposite its motion. The traction force is
  1. 3600 N
  2. 1800 N
  3. 2400 N
  4. 5400 N

Question 2

1 mark
A vineyard rover follows a circular turn of radius 20 m at 8.0 m s⁻¹. Its centripetal acceleration is
  1. 0.40 m s⁻²
  2. 3.2 m s⁻²
  3. 12.8 m s⁻²
  4. 160 m s⁻²

Question 3

1 mark
Two rescue flares leave the same ledge horizontally at different speeds. Air resistance is negligible. Compared with the slower flare, the faster flare reaches level ground
  1. sooner and farther from the ledge.
  2. later and at the same horizontal position.
  3. at the same time but farther from the ledge.
  4. at the same time and the same horizontal position.

Question 4

1 mark
A 0.15 kg training puck changes velocity from +20 m s⁻¹ to -10 m s⁻¹. The magnitude of its impulse is
  1. 1.5 N s
  2. 3.0 N s
  3. 6.0 N s
  4. 4.5 N s

Question 5

1 mark
At the surface of a spherical planet the gravitational field is g. At a distance of two planetary radii from its centre, the field is
  1. g/4
  2. g/2
  3. 2 g
  4. 4 g

Question 6

1 mark
A +2.0 μC charge is in a uniform electric field of 3.0 × 10⁴ N C⁻¹. The electric force magnitude is
  1. 0.015 N
  2. 15 N
  3. 0.060 N
  4. 60 N

Question 7

1 mark
An electron enters a uniform magnetic field with its velocity parallel to the field direction. Its magnetic force is
  1. parallel to its velocity.
  2. zero.
  3. opposite to its velocity.
  4. perpendicular with magnitude qvB.

Question 8

1 mark
For a simple DC motor operating well within its limits, doubling both coil current and the number of turns makes the maximum magnetic torque
  1. three times as large.
  2. twice as large.
  3. unchanged.
  4. four times as large.

Question 9

1 mark
A 0.040 m² loop is perpendicular to a uniform 0.25 T magnetic field. The magnetic flux through the loop is
  1. 0.010 Wb
  2. 0.016 Wb
  3. 0.25 Wb
  4. 6.25 Wb

Question 10

1 mark
The flux through each turn of a 200-turn coil changes by 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb in 0.15 s. The average induced emf magnitude is
  1. 0.0040 V
  2. 4.0 V
  3. 0.90 V
  4. 400 V

Question 11

1 mark
An ideal transformer changes 240 V to 24 V. If the primary current is 0.50 A, the secondary current is
  1. 0.050 A
  2. 0.50 A
  3. 5.0 A
  4. 50 A

Question 12

1 mark
For fixed transmitted power and line resistance, stepping transmission voltage upward reduces power lost in the lines because it
  1. reduces current and therefore reduces I²R heating.
  2. increases current while leaving I²R unchanged.
  3. reduces the line resistance to zero.
  4. changes alternating current into direct current.

Question 13

1 mark
Light of wavelength 600 nm passes through slits 0.50 mm apart onto a screen 2.0 m away. The fringe spacing is closest to
  1. 0.60 mm
  2. 1.2 mm
  3. 4.8 mm
  4. 2.4 mm

Question 14

1 mark
The energy of a 500 nm photon is closest to
  1. 1.3 × 10⁻²⁷ J
  2. 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
  3. 3.0 × 10⁸ J
  4. 2.5 × 10⁻¹⁶ J

Question 15

1 mark
For non-relativistic particles, a particle with smaller momentum has
  1. a shorter de Broglie wavelength.
  2. the same de Broglie wavelength for every mass.
  3. a longer de Broglie wavelength.
  4. no wave property.

Question 16

1 mark
A probe clock records a proper time of 8.0 μs while its Lorentz factor relative to Earth is 1.25. Earth observers measure
  1. 10 μs
  2. 6.4 μs
  3. 8.0 μs
  4. 1.25 μs

Question 17

1 mark
A motion sensor reports 0.04 m even when its target is at the defined zero position. This is primarily
  1. random variation only.
  2. a systematic zero error.
  3. a larger sample size.
  4. evidence that the target accelerated.

Question 18

1 mark
Repeated timings made by the same student with the same apparatus chiefly assess
  1. the accepted value without uncertainty.
  2. whether the apparatus is ethically approved.
  3. theoretical validity without data.
  4. repeatability and random spread.

Question 19

1 mark
For an object released from rest with negligible air resistance, which graph should be linear through the origin?
  1. speed versus distance fallen
  2. distance fallen versus speed squared with a non-zero intercept necessarily
  3. speed squared versus distance fallen
  4. speed versus time squared

Question 20

1 mark
A class finds brighter lamps are associated with warmer solar panels during outdoor tests. The most defensible conclusion is that
  1. the variables are associated, but the data alone do not establish that lamp brightness caused panel temperature.
  2. brighter lamps definitely caused every temperature increase.
  3. temperature cannot influence any electrical measurement.
  4. the association proves the hypothesis under all weather conditions.

Section B - Short-answer and extended-response questions

Answer all questions. Show working, justify directions and use physically precise explanations. Section B is worth 100 marks.

Question 1

10 marks
Stimulus

A 1200 kg snow groomer starts from rest on a level straight track. Its drive force is 5400 N and resistance is 1800 N for 30 m. It then enters a level bend of radius 32 m at the speed reached on the straight. On the bend the maximum available sideways tyre force is 6000 N. Ignore speed changes during entry to the bend.

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the straight-track acceleration.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the kinetic energy and speed at the bend entrance.
(c) 3 marks
Decide whether the groomer can follow the bend without slipping. Support your decision quantitatively.
(d) 2 marks
Determine the maximum entry speed allowed by the sideways-force limit and state one limitation of this prediction.

Response - Question 1

10 marks

Question 2

3 marks
Stimulus

A rescue beacon is launched horizontally at 18 m s⁻¹ from a cliff and lands 45 m horizontally from the launch point. Air resistance is negligible.

Diagram Preview
cliff launch valley landing rescue beacon 18 m s⁻¹ trajectory vertical drop 45 m
(a) 1 mark
Calculate the time of flight.
(b) 2 marks
Determine the vertical drop.

Question 3

7 marks
Stimulus

A 0.40 kg instrument package moving at 14 m s⁻¹ is stopped by a helmet-liner test rig. Compare a rigid stop lasting 0.012 s with a deformable liner that stops it in 0.080 s.

(a) 3 marks
Determine the stopping impulse magnitude and the average stopping-force magnitude for each stop.
(b) 1 mark
Explain why the liner reduces average force without reducing the stopping impulse.
(c) 3 marks
For a constant-deceleration estimate, calculate each stopping distance and the kinetic energy transferred out of the package.

Question 4

3 marks
Stimulus

A 950 kg weather satellite orbits at a radius of 7.20 × 10⁶ m from Earth's centre. Use Earth mass 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg and G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N m² kg⁻².

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the gravitational field at the satellite.
(b) 1 mark
Calculate the circular orbital speed.

Question 5

7 marks
Stimulus

A grain of charge +3.0 nC moves from the positive plate to the negative plate between uniform parallel plates separated by 12 mm with 480 V across them. Ignore gravity and other energy transfers during its brief transit.

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the electric field and force on the grain.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the electric work, the change in electric potential energy and the change in kinetic energy during the transit.
(c) 2 marks
The plate separation is halved while voltage and charge remain fixed. Predict the electric force and work for a full transit.

Response - Question 5

7 marks

Question 6

5 marks
Stimulus

Electrons of speed 2.4 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹ enter perpendicular to a 0.018 T magnetic field. Use electron mass 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg and charge magnitude 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ C.

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the magnetic-force magnitude.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the circular-path radius and describe the field's effect on speed.

Question 7

5 marks
Stimulus

An orchard robot uses a simple DC motor with a rectangular multi-turn coil between permanent magnets and a split-ring commutator.

Diagram Preview
N S axle orchard drive coil DC supply continuous torque
(a) 5 marks
Explain and evaluate the features that produce continuous rotation and greater torque.

Question 8

5 marks
Stimulus

A 350-turn monitoring coil experiences a flux change per turn from +2.0 mWb to -1.0 mWb in 0.060 s.

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the average induced-emf magnitude.
(b) 3 marks
Explain the sign in Faraday-Lenz law.

Question 9

5 marks
Stimulus

A wind-turbine alternator produces a sinusoidal voltage with peak value 460 V and frequency 50 Hz.

Diagram Preview
N S wind coil sinusoidal output 50 Hz
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the rms voltage and period.
(b) 3 marks
Explain how uniform coil rotation produces the alternating output.

Response - Question 9

5 marks

Question 10

3 marks
Stimulus

A rural clinic uses an ideal transformer with 1800 primary turns and 90 secondary turns. The primary is connected to 240 V rms and the secondary supplies 360 W.

(a) 3 marks
Determine the secondary rms voltage and current, showing the transformer relationship used.

Question 11

7 marks
Stimulus

A regional generator sends 2.0 MW through lines of total resistance 3.0 Ω. Compare transmission at 20 kV with transmission at 200 kV, assuming the stated power enters the line. Treat the line and load as resistive, using P = VrmsIrms at each line end.

Diagram Preview
2.0 MW generator 20 kV primary step-up transformer 200 kV line transmission line regional load load side
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the line current at each sending voltage.
(b) 2 marks
Calculate line heating at each voltage.
(c) 3 marks
Find the power delivered and line efficiency at each voltage. Select the design that meets a minimum line efficiency of 99.9%.

Question 12

7 marks
Stimulus

A 520 nm laser illuminates double slits 0.30 mm apart. A screen is 1.80 m away.

Diagram Preview
520 nm laser520 nm 0.30 mm slits 1.80 m screenbright fringes
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the adjacent bright-fringe spacing.
(b) 2 marks
The light is changed to 650 nm. Calculate the spacing ratio and the new spacing with the apparatus unchanged.
(c) 3 marks
The 650 nm light is retained and slit separation becomes 0.60 mm. Calculate the new bright-fringe spacing and state the path-difference conditions for bright and dark fringes.

Question 13

5 marks
Stimulus

A metal has work function 2.20 eV. It is illuminated by photons of energy 3.10 eV.

(a) 2 marks
Calculate the maximum photoelectron kinetic energy and stopping potential.
(b) 3 marks
Explain the effect of increasing intensity at unchanged photon energy.

Response - Question 13

5 marks

Question 14

3 marks
Stimulus

An atom emits a 486 nm photon when an electron moves from a higher state to a lower state.

Diagram Preview
vapour atom higher state lower state ground state downward transition 486 nm photon
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the energy difference between the states.
(b) 1 mark
Explain briefly why the vapour emits discrete wavelengths.

Question 15

5 marks
Stimulus

Muons have a proper mean lifetime of 2.20 μs. A group travels at 0.980c, for which γ ≈ 5.03, toward an observatory 8.0 km below their production altitude.

(a) 5 marks
Evaluate, using both frames, why many muons can reach the observatory.

Question 16

5 marks
Stimulus

Students vary the applied force on the same dynamics cart and measure acceleration. Their force-acceleration data are (1.0 N, 0.42 m s⁻²), (2.0 N, 0.83 m s⁻²), (3.0 N, 1.25 m s⁻²) and (4.0 N, 1.67 m s⁻²).

Graph Preview
0123421.510.50applied force (N)acceleration (m s⁻²)
(a) 2 marks
State an aim and identify the variables.
(b) 3 marks
Interpret the gradient and assess the data.

Question 17

5 marks
Stimulus

A class measures the central diffraction width for laser light passing through six different slit widths. Students must align a laser across the room before each run.

(a) 2 marks
Write a directional hypothesis and identify a key control.
(b) 3 marks
Specify safe, valid and repeatable improvements.

Response - Question 17

5 marks

Question 18

5 marks
Stimulus

A balance measures magnetic force on the 0.080 m active segment of a single current-carrying conductor. This segment is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. At currents 0.5, 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0 A the force readings are 3.1, 6.0, 9.2 and 12.1 mN.

Graph Preview
00.511.5212.5107.552.50current (A)magnetic force (mN)
(a) 2 marks
Analyse the force-current relationship.
(b) 3 marks
Use the gradient to estimate field strength and evaluate one limitation.

Question 19

5 marks
Stimulus

A poster claims, 'Increasing launch angle always increases projectile range.' The team tested 20°, 30°, 40° and 50° using a spring launcher, but launch speed fell at larger angles because the release latch rubbed against its guide.

(a) 5 marks
Evaluate the claim, evidence and communication, then propose a defensible revision.

VCE is administered by the Victorian Curriculum and Assessment Authority (VCAA). Skill Align is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with, authorised by, sponsored by, approved by or endorsed by VCAA or the Victorian Government.

Copyright (c) 2026 Skill Align. Free for personal, non-commercial online viewing at https://skillalign.au. You may share the Skill Align page link. Except as permitted by law or with Skill Align's prior written permission, the pack itself must not be resold, copied, redistributed, republished, automatically extracted, or uploaded to a question bank. All questions, scenarios, datasets, visuals, answers and marking guidance are original Skill Align content.

Worked Solutions And Marking Guide

Section A Question 1

Answer: 3600 N

The required resultant is 1800 N, so traction must be 1800 N plus the 1800 N resistance.

Section A Question 2

Answer: 3.2 m s⁻²

Using a = v²/r gives 64/20 = 3.2 m s⁻².

Section A Question 3

Answer: at the same time but farther from the ledge.

Their vertical motions are identical; horizontal speed changes range but not fall time.

Section A Question 4

Answer: 4.5 N s

The momentum change is 0.15(-10 - 20) = -4.5 kg m s⁻¹, with magnitude 4.5 N s.

Section A Question 5

Answer: g/4

The inverse-square relationship gives g(1/2)² = g/4.

Section A Question 6

Answer: 0.060 N

F = qE = 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ × 3.0 × 10⁴ = 0.060 N.

Section A Question 7

Answer: zero.

For parallel velocity and field, the magnetic-force factor sin 0° is zero.

Section A Question 8

Answer: four times as large.

Motor torque is proportional to both current and number of turns.

Section A Question 9

Answer: 0.010 Wb

With the field perpendicular to the loop area, Φ = BA = 0.25 × 0.040 = 0.010 Wb.

Section A Question 10

Answer: 4.0 V

|ε| = N|ΔΦ/Δt| = 200 × 0.0030/0.15 = 4.0 V.

Section A Question 11

Answer: 5.0 A

Conservation of power gives 240 × 0.50 = 24 × I₂, so I₂ = 5.0 A.

Section A Question 12

Answer: reduces current and therefore reduces I²R heating.

At fixed power, higher voltage means lower current, which reduces resistive heating.

Section A Question 13

Answer: 2.4 mm

Δx = λL/d = 600 × 10⁻⁹ × 2.0/(0.50 × 10⁻³) = 2.4 mm.

Section A Question 14

Answer: 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

E = hc/λ ≈ 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ × 3.00 × 10⁸/(500 × 10⁻⁹) = 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J.

Section A Question 15

Answer: a longer de Broglie wavelength.

The de Broglie relation λ = h/p makes wavelength inversely proportional to momentum.

Section A Question 16

Answer: 10 μs

Time dilation gives t = γt₀ = 1.25 × 8.0 μs = 10 μs.

Section A Question 17

Answer: a systematic zero error.

A persistent offset shifts measurements in the same direction.

Section A Question 18

Answer: repeatability and random spread.

Same-method repeats reveal the precision and random variation of that setup.

Section A Question 19

Answer: speed squared versus distance fallen

From v² = 2gs, v² plotted against s is linear through the origin.

Section A Question 20

Answer: the variables are associated, but the data alone do not establish that lamp brightness caused panel temperature.

Uncontrolled irradiance and weather prevent a causal conclusion from correlation alone.

Section B Question 1

(a) Finds a forward resultant of 3600 N. Obtains acceleration 3.0 m s⁻².

Finds a forward resultant of 3600 N. Obtains acceleration 3.0 m s⁻².

(b) Calculates net work 3600 × 30 = 1.08 × 10⁵ J. Equates this work to the increase in kinetic energy from rest. Obtains speed √180 = 13.4 m s⁻¹.

Calculates net work 3600 × 30 = 1.08 × 10⁵ J. Equates this work to the increase in kinetic energy from rest. Obtains speed √180 = 13.4 m s⁻¹.

(c) Uses inward force mv²/r. Obtains required sideways force 6750 N, greater than 6000 N. Concludes that the intended bend cannot be followed at this speed; the initial ground-frame motion on losing grip is tangential.

Uses inward force mv²/r. Obtains required sideways force 6750 N, greater than 6000 N. Concludes that the intended bend cannot be followed at this speed; the initial ground-frame motion on losing grip is tangential.

(d) Obtains √(6000 × 32/1200) = 12.6 m s⁻¹. Identifies an applicable limitation such as uneven ice, a changing grip limit or simultaneous braking using some of the available tyre force.

Obtains √(6000 × 32/1200) = 12.6 m s⁻¹. Identifies an applicable limitation such as uneven ice, a changing grip limit or simultaneous braking using some of the available tyre force.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Finds a forward resultant of 3600 N.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains acceleration 3.0 m s⁻².

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates net work 3600 × 30 = 1.08 × 10⁵ J.

Part b (1 mark)

Equates this work to the increase in kinetic energy from rest.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains speed √180 = 13.4 m s⁻¹.

Part c (1 mark)

Uses inward force mv²/r.

Part c (1 mark)

Obtains required sideways force 6750 N, greater than 6000 N.

Part c (1 mark)

Concludes that the intended bend cannot be followed at this speed; the initial ground-frame motion on losing grip is tangential.

Part d (1 mark)

Obtains √(6000 × 32/1200) = 12.6 m s⁻¹.

Part d (1 mark)

Identifies an applicable limitation such as uneven ice, a changing grip limit or simultaneous braking using some of the available tyre force.

Section B Question 2

(a) Obtains t = 45/18 = 2.50 s from horizontal motion.

Obtains t = 45/18 = 2.50 s from horizontal motion.

(b) Uses zero initial vertical velocity and drop = ½gt². Obtains drop = 0.5 × 9.8 × 2.50² = 30.6 m.

Uses zero initial vertical velocity and drop = ½gt². Obtains drop = 0.5 × 9.8 × 2.50² = 30.6 m.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains t = 45/18 = 2.50 s from horizontal motion.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses zero initial vertical velocity and drop = ½gt².

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains drop = 0.5 × 9.8 × 2.50² = 30.6 m.

Section B Question 3

(a) Obtains impulse magnitude 0.40 × 14 = 5.6 N s. Obtains rigid-stop average force 5.6/0.012 = 467 N. Obtains liner average force 5.6/0.080 = 70 N.

Obtains impulse magnitude 0.40 × 14 = 5.6 N s. Obtains rigid-stop average force 5.6/0.012 = 467 N. Obtains liner average force 5.6/0.080 = 70 N.

(b) Both stops remove the same momentum, so spreading the same impulse over a longer time reduces average force.

Both stops remove the same momentum, so spreading the same impulse over a longer time reduces average force.

(c) Obtains rigid-stop distance ½ × 14 × 0.012 = 0.084 m. Obtains liner stopping distance ½ × 14 × 0.080 = 0.56 m. Obtains kinetic-energy decrease ½ × 0.40 × 14² = 39.2 J.

Obtains rigid-stop distance ½ × 14 × 0.012 = 0.084 m. Obtains liner stopping distance ½ × 14 × 0.080 = 0.56 m. Obtains kinetic-energy decrease ½ × 0.40 × 14² = 39.2 J.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains impulse magnitude 0.40 × 14 = 5.6 N s.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains rigid-stop average force 5.6/0.012 = 467 N.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains liner average force 5.6/0.080 = 70 N.

Part b (1 mark)

Both stops remove the same momentum, so spreading the same impulse over a longer time reduces average force.

Part c (1 mark)

Obtains rigid-stop distance ½ × 14 × 0.012 = 0.084 m.

Part c (1 mark)

Obtains liner stopping distance ½ × 14 × 0.080 = 0.56 m.

Part c (1 mark)

Obtains kinetic-energy decrease ½ × 0.40 × 14² = 39.2 J.

Section B Question 4

(a) Uses g = GM/r². Obtains g ≈ 7.68 N kg⁻¹ directed toward Earth.

Uses g = GM/r². Obtains g ≈ 7.68 N kg⁻¹ directed toward Earth.

(b) Obtains v = √(GM/r) ≈ 7.44 × 10³ m s⁻¹.

Obtains v = √(GM/r) ≈ 7.44 × 10³ m s⁻¹.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses g = GM/r².

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains g ≈ 7.68 N kg⁻¹ directed toward Earth.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains v = √(GM/r) ≈ 7.44 × 10³ m s⁻¹.

Section B Question 5

(a) Calculates E = V/d = 480/0.012 = 4.0 × 10⁴ V m⁻¹. Calculates F = qE = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ N toward the negative plate.

Calculates E = V/d = 480/0.012 = 4.0 × 10⁴ V m⁻¹. Calculates F = qE = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ N toward the negative plate.

(b) Obtains electric work qV = 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J. Obtains electric-potential-energy change −1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J. Obtains kinetic-energy increase +1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J.

Obtains electric work qV = 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J. Obtains electric-potential-energy change −1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J. Obtains kinetic-energy increase +1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J.

(c) E = V/d doubles, so force doubles to 2.4 × 10⁻⁴ N. The full-transit work qV remains 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J because the potential difference is unchanged.

E = V/d doubles, so force doubles to 2.4 × 10⁻⁴ N. The full-transit work qV remains 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J because the potential difference is unchanged.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates E = V/d = 480/0.012 = 4.0 × 10⁴ V m⁻¹.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates F = qE = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ N toward the negative plate.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains electric work qV = 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains electric-potential-energy change −1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains kinetic-energy increase +1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J.

Part c (1 mark)

E = V/d doubles, so force doubles to 2.4 × 10⁻⁴ N.

Part c (1 mark)

The full-transit work qV remains 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J because the potential difference is unchanged.

Section B Question 6

(a) Uses F = qvB for perpendicular velocity and field. Obtains F = 6.91 × 10⁻¹⁵ N.

Uses F = qvB for perpendicular velocity and field. Obtains F = 6.91 × 10⁻¹⁵ N.

(b) Uses r = mv/(qB). Obtains r ≈ 7.59 × 10⁻⁴ m. Explains that the perpendicular magnetic force changes direction but does no work, so speed remains constant.

Uses r = mv/(qB). Obtains r ≈ 7.59 × 10⁻⁴ m. Explains that the perpendicular magnetic force changes direction but does no work, so speed remains constant.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses F = qvB for perpendicular velocity and field.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains F = 6.91 × 10⁻¹⁵ N.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses r = mv/(qB).

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains r ≈ 7.59 × 10⁻⁴ m.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that the perpendicular magnetic force changes direction but does no work, so speed remains constant.

Section B Question 7

(a) Identifies opposite magnetic forces on the two current-carrying sides of the coil. Explains that the force pair creates a torque about the axle. Explains that the split-ring commutator reverses coil current every half-turn so torque continues in the same rotational sense. States that increasing current, field strength or turn count increases torque within operating limits. Notes that added resistance or heating can limit current, so a higher supply voltage does not guarantee proportional torque indefinitely.

Identifies opposite magnetic forces on the two current-carrying sides of the coil. Explains that the force pair creates a torque about the axle. Explains that the split-ring commutator reverses coil current every half-turn so torque continues in the same rotational sense. States that increasing current, field strength or turn count increases torque within operating limits. Notes that added resistance or heating can limit current, so a higher supply voltage does not guarantee proportional torque indefinitely.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies opposite magnetic forces on the two current-carrying sides of the coil.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that the force pair creates a torque about the axle.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that the split-ring commutator reverses coil current every half-turn so torque continues in the same rotational sense.

Part a (1 mark)

States that increasing current, field strength or turn count increases torque within operating limits.

Part a (1 mark)

Notes that added resistance or heating can limit current, so a higher supply voltage does not guarantee proportional torque indefinitely.

Section B Question 8

(a) Calculates the flux-change magnitude per turn as 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb. Calculates |ε| = 350 × 0.0030/0.060 = 17.5 V.

Calculates the flux-change magnitude per turn as 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb. Calculates |ε| = 350 × 0.0030/0.060 = 17.5 V.

(b) States that changing flux induces an emf/current. Explains that the induced magnetic effect opposes the flux change rather than opposing the existing flux necessarily. Connects this opposition to energy conservation.

States that changing flux induces an emf/current. Explains that the induced magnetic effect opposes the flux change rather than opposing the existing flux necessarily. Connects this opposition to energy conservation.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the flux-change magnitude per turn as 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates |ε| = 350 × 0.0030/0.060 = 17.5 V.

Part b (1 mark)

States that changing flux induces an emf/current.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that the induced magnetic effect opposes the flux change rather than opposing the existing flux necessarily.

Part b (1 mark)

Connects this opposition to energy conservation.

Section B Question 9

(a) Calculates Vrms = 460/√2 ≈ 325 V. Calculates T = 1/f = 0.020 s.

Calculates Vrms = 460/√2 ≈ 325 V. Calculates T = 1/f = 0.020 s.

(b) States that rotation changes the magnetic flux through the coil. Links induced emf to the rate of change of flux. Explains that slip rings preserve connection while the emf reverses every half-turn.

States that rotation changes the magnetic flux through the coil. Links induced emf to the rate of change of flux. Explains that slip rings preserve connection while the emf reverses every half-turn.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates Vrms = 460/√2 ≈ 325 V.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates T = 1/f = 0.020 s.

Part b (1 mark)

States that rotation changes the magnetic flux through the coil.

Part b (1 mark)

Links induced emf to the rate of change of flux.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that slip rings preserve connection while the emf reverses every half-turn.

Section B Question 10

(a) Uses V₂/V₁ = N₂/N₁ = 90/1800. Obtains V₂ = 12 V rms. Obtains I₂ = 360/12 = 30 A.

Uses V₂/V₁ = N₂/N₁ = 90/1800. Obtains V₂ = 12 V rms. Obtains I₂ = 360/12 = 30 A.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses V₂/V₁ = N₂/N₁ = 90/1800.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains V₂ = 12 V rms.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains I₂ = 360/12 = 30 A.

Section B Question 11

(a) Obtains 100 A at 20 kV. Obtains 10 A at 200 kV.

Obtains 100 A at 20 kV. Obtains 10 A at 200 kV.

(b) Obtains 100² × 3.0 = 30 kW at 20 kV. Obtains 10² × 3.0 = 0.30 kW at 200 kV.

Obtains 100² × 3.0 = 30 kW at 20 kV. Obtains 10² × 3.0 = 0.30 kW at 200 kV.

(c) Subtracts line heating to obtain delivered powers 1.970 MW and 1.99970 MW. Obtains line efficiencies 98.5% and 99.985% respectively. Selects 200 kV because only its line efficiency reaches 99.9%.

Subtracts line heating to obtain delivered powers 1.970 MW and 1.99970 MW. Obtains line efficiencies 98.5% and 99.985% respectively. Selects 200 kV because only its line efficiency reaches 99.9%.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains 100 A at 20 kV.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains 10 A at 200 kV.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains 100² × 3.0 = 30 kW at 20 kV.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains 10² × 3.0 = 0.30 kW at 200 kV.

Part c (1 mark)

Subtracts line heating to obtain delivered powers 1.970 MW and 1.99970 MW.

Part c (1 mark)

Obtains line efficiencies 98.5% and 99.985% respectively.

Part c (1 mark)

Selects 200 kV because only its line efficiency reaches 99.9%.

Section B Question 12

(a) Uses Δx = λL/d. Obtains Δx = 3.12 × 10⁻³ m or 3.12 mm.

Uses Δx = λL/d. Obtains Δx = 3.12 × 10⁻³ m or 3.12 mm.

(b) Obtains spacing ratio 650/520 = 1.25. Obtains new spacing 3.90 mm.

Obtains spacing ratio 650/520 = 1.25. Obtains new spacing 3.90 mm.

(c) Obtains spacing 650 × 10⁻⁹ × 1.80/(0.60 × 10⁻³) = 1.95 mm. Bright fringes require an integer multiple of wavelength as path difference. Dark fringes require an odd multiple of half a wavelength as path difference.

Obtains spacing 650 × 10⁻⁹ × 1.80/(0.60 × 10⁻³) = 1.95 mm. Bright fringes require an integer multiple of wavelength as path difference. Dark fringes require an odd multiple of half a wavelength as path difference.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses Δx = λL/d.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains Δx = 3.12 × 10⁻³ m or 3.12 mm.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains spacing ratio 650/520 = 1.25.

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains new spacing 3.90 mm.

Part c (1 mark)

Obtains spacing 650 × 10⁻⁹ × 1.80/(0.60 × 10⁻³) = 1.95 mm.

Part c (1 mark)

Bright fringes require an integer multiple of wavelength as path difference.

Part c (1 mark)

Dark fringes require an odd multiple of half a wavelength as path difference.

Section B Question 13

(a) Calculates Ek,max = 3.10 - 2.20 = 0.90 eV. Obtains a stopping-potential magnitude of 0.90 V.

Calculates Ek,max = 3.10 - 2.20 = 0.90 eV. Obtains a stopping-potential magnitude of 0.90 V.

(b) States that photon energy and therefore maximum kinetic energy remain unchanged. States that more photons arrive per unit time. Predicts a greater emission rate and photocurrent when other conditions are unchanged.

States that photon energy and therefore maximum kinetic energy remain unchanged. States that more photons arrive per unit time. Predicts a greater emission rate and photocurrent when other conditions are unchanged.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates Ek,max = 3.10 - 2.20 = 0.90 eV.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains a stopping-potential magnitude of 0.90 V.

Part b (1 mark)

States that photon energy and therefore maximum kinetic energy remain unchanged.

Part b (1 mark)

States that more photons arrive per unit time.

Part b (1 mark)

Predicts a greater emission rate and photocurrent when other conditions are unchanged.

Section B Question 14

(a) Uses ΔE = hc/λ. Obtains ΔE ≈ 4.09 × 10⁻¹⁹ J or 2.55 eV.

Uses ΔE = hc/λ. Obtains ΔE ≈ 4.09 × 10⁻¹⁹ J or 2.55 eV.

(b) Quantised energy-state differences permit only particular emitted photon energies and therefore particular wavelengths.

Quantised energy-state differences permit only particular emitted photon energies and therefore particular wavelengths.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses ΔE = hc/λ.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains ΔE ≈ 4.09 × 10⁻¹⁹ J or 2.55 eV.

Part b (1 mark)

Quantised energy-state differences permit only particular emitted photon energies and therefore particular wavelengths.

Section B Question 15

(a) Calculates the Earth-frame dilated lifetime as about 11.1 μs. Calculates an Earth-frame mean travel distance of about 3.25 km and recognises survival is probabilistic rather than guaranteed. Calculates the 8.0 km atmospheric distance in the muon frame as about 1.59 km. Explains that time dilation in Earth's frame and length contraction in the muon frame are consistent descriptions of the same events. Avoids adding the relativistic effects twice or claiming the muons experience a dilated proper lifetime.

Calculates the Earth-frame dilated lifetime as about 11.1 μs. Calculates an Earth-frame mean travel distance of about 3.25 km and recognises survival is probabilistic rather than guaranteed. Calculates the 8.0 km atmospheric distance in the muon frame as about 1.59 km. Explains that time dilation in Earth's frame and length contraction in the muon frame are consistent descriptions of the same events. Avoids adding the relativistic effects twice or claiming the muons experience a dilated proper lifetime.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the Earth-frame dilated lifetime as about 11.1 μs.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates an Earth-frame mean travel distance of about 3.25 km and recognises survival is probabilistic rather than guaranteed.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the 8.0 km atmospheric distance in the muon frame as about 1.59 km.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that time dilation in Earth's frame and length contraction in the muon frame are consistent descriptions of the same events.

Part a (1 mark)

Avoids adding the relativistic effects twice or claiming the muons experience a dilated proper lifetime.

Section B Question 16

(a) States an aim to determine the relationship between applied force and acceleration for the cart. Identifies force as continuous independent variable, acceleration as dependent variable, and cart mass as controlled.

States an aim to determine the relationship between applied force and acceleration for the cart. Identifies force as continuous independent variable, acceleration as dependent variable, and cart mass as controlled.

(b) Finds a gradient close to 0.42 (m s⁻²) N⁻¹. Uses gradient = 1/m to estimate mass about 2.4 kg. Notes the near-linear pattern and requests uncertainty/repeats before judging agreement precisely.

Finds a gradient close to 0.42 (m s⁻²) N⁻¹. Uses gradient = 1/m to estimate mass about 2.4 kg. Notes the near-linear pattern and requests uncertainty/repeats before judging agreement precisely.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

States an aim to determine the relationship between applied force and acceleration for the cart.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies force as continuous independent variable, acceleration as dependent variable, and cart mass as controlled.

Part b (1 mark)

Finds a gradient close to 0.42 (m s⁻²) N⁻¹.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses gradient = 1/m to estimate mass about 2.4 kg.

Part b (1 mark)

Notes the near-linear pattern and requests uncertainty/repeats before judging agreement precisely.

Section B Question 17

(a) Predicts that decreasing slit width will increase diffraction spread or central maximum width. Identifies wavelength and screen distance as controlled variables.

Predicts that decreasing slit width will increase diffraction spread or central maximum width. Identifies wavelength and screen distance as controlled variables.

(b) Requires the beam path to be below or above eye level with controlled access and no direct viewing. Uses several continuous slit widths with repeated width measurements. Keeps alignment and screen distance fixed and records uncertainty in fringe-width measurement.

Requires the beam path to be below or above eye level with controlled access and no direct viewing. Uses several continuous slit widths with repeated width measurements. Keeps alignment and screen distance fixed and records uncertainty in fringe-width measurement.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Predicts that decreasing slit width will increase diffraction spread or central maximum width.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies wavelength and screen distance as controlled variables.

Part b (1 mark)

Requires the beam path to be below or above eye level with controlled access and no direct viewing.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses several continuous slit widths with repeated width measurements.

Part b (1 mark)

Keeps alignment and screen distance fixed and records uncertainty in fringe-width measurement.

Section B Question 18

(a) Identifies an approximately linear proportional relationship. Estimates gradient approximately 6.0 mN A⁻¹.

Identifies an approximately linear proportional relationship. Estimates gradient approximately 6.0 mN A⁻¹.

(b) Uses gradient = lB for a perpendicular single wire. Calculates B ≈ 0.0060/0.080 = 0.075 T. Notes a limitation such as field non-uniformity, balance resolution or unreported repeats/uncertainty.

Uses gradient = lB for a perpendicular single wire. Calculates B ≈ 0.0060/0.080 = 0.075 T. Notes a limitation such as field non-uniformity, balance resolution or unreported repeats/uncertainty.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies an approximately linear proportional relationship.

Part a (1 mark)

Estimates gradient approximately 6.0 mN A⁻¹.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses gradient = lB for a perpendicular single wire.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates B ≈ 0.0060/0.080 = 0.075 T.

Part b (1 mark)

Notes a limitation such as field non-uniformity, balance resolution or unreported repeats/uncertainty.

Section B Question 19

(a) Identifies that the absolute word 'always' exceeds the tested angle range and assumptions. Identifies launch speed as a confounding variable because it changed with angle. Requires measured launch speed, repeats and uncertainty at each angle while controlling launch height and apparatus. States that any conclusion must be restricted to the tested launcher conditions and supported range pattern. Proposes clear reporting of raw/processed data, uncertainty bars, the latch limitation and a revised conditional claim rather than causal overstatement.

Identifies that the absolute word 'always' exceeds the tested angle range and assumptions. Identifies launch speed as a confounding variable because it changed with angle. Requires measured launch speed, repeats and uncertainty at each angle while controlling launch height and apparatus. States that any conclusion must be restricted to the tested launcher conditions and supported range pattern. Proposes clear reporting of raw/processed data, uncertainty bars, the latch limitation and a revised conditional claim rather than causal overstatement.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies that the absolute word 'always' exceeds the tested angle range and assumptions.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies launch speed as a confounding variable because it changed with angle.

Part a (1 mark)

Requires measured launch speed, repeats and uncertainty at each angle while controlling launch height and apparatus.

Part a (1 mark)

States that any conclusion must be restricted to the tested launcher conditions and supported range pattern.

Part a (1 mark)

Proposes clear reporting of raw/processed data, uncertainty bars, the latch limitation and a revised conditional claim rather than causal overstatement.

Diagnostic Checklist

TopicQuestionsMarksMarks LostAction
Motion in two dimensions A1, A2, A3, A4, B1, B2, B3 24 ___ Review Newton's laws, circular and projectile motion, momentum, impulse, work and energy.
Fields and non-contact motion A5, A6, A7, A8, B4, B5, B6, B7 24 ___ Review gravitational, electric and magnetic fields, satellites, motors and particle accelerators.
Electricity generation and transmission A9, A10, A11, A12, B8, B9, B10, B11 24 ___ Review flux, induction, generators, AC, transformers and transmission losses.
Changing models of light and matter A13, A14, A15, A16, B12, B13, B14, B15 24 ___ Review waves, photons, matter waves, spectra, relativity and mass-energy.
Scientific inquiry A17, A18, A19, A20, B16, B17, B18, B19 24 ___ Review experimental design, uncertainty, linearisation, evidence, safety and communication.

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  • Written examination Thu 12 Nov 2026 9:00 am Upcoming

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