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VCE Physics Units 3&4

VCE Physics Units 3&4 — Free Online Pack 0

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VCE Units 3&4 End-of-Year Examination 2026 Edition - Pack 0 v1.0
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VCE Physics Units 3&4

39 questions

120 marks

Estimated duration: Reading time 15 minutes; writing time 2 hours 30 minutes

Reading: 15 minutes · Writing: 2 hours 30 minutes

Read VCE Physics Units 3&4 online

Skill Align

Skill Align VCE Physics Units 3&4 Practice Examination - 2026 Edition, Pack 0

An original alpine rail and regional energy examination aligned to the current VCE Physics assessment contract.

Paper
Question and Answer Book
Reading
15 minutes
Writing
2 hours 30 minutes
Assessment
120 marks

Use the current VCAA VCE Physics Formula Sheet (provided separately and linked with this pack). One scientific calculator and pre-written notes comprising one folded A3 sheet or two A4 sheets bound together by tape may be used.

Section A - Multiple-choice questions

Answer all 20 questions. Select the correct or best answer. Each question is worth 1 mark.

Question 1

1 mark
A 1200 kg alpine tram accelerates at 1.5 m s⁻² while 1800 N of resistance acts opposite its motion. The traction force is
  1. 3600 N
  2. 1800 N
  3. 2400 N
  4. 5400 N

Question 2

1 mark
A vineyard rover follows a circular turn of radius 20 m at 8.0 m s⁻¹. Its centripetal acceleration is
  1. 0.40 m s⁻²
  2. 3.2 m s⁻²
  3. 12.8 m s⁻²
  4. 160 m s⁻²

Question 3

1 mark
Two rescue flares leave the same ledge horizontally at different speeds. Air resistance is negligible. Compared with the slower flare, the faster flare reaches level ground
  1. sooner and farther from the ledge.
  2. later and at the same horizontal position.
  3. at the same time but farther from the ledge.
  4. at the same time and the same horizontal position.

Question 4

1 mark
A 0.15 kg training puck changes velocity from +20 m s⁻¹ to -10 m s⁻¹. The magnitude of its impulse is
  1. 1.5 N s
  2. 3.0 N s
  3. 6.0 N s
  4. 4.5 N s

Question 5

1 mark
At the surface of a spherical planet the gravitational field is g. At a distance of two planetary radii from its centre, the field is
  1. g/4
  2. g/2
  3. 2 g
  4. 4 g

Question 6

1 mark
A +2.0 μC charge is in a uniform electric field of 3.0 × 10⁴ N C⁻¹. The electric force magnitude is
  1. 0.015 N
  2. 15 N
  3. 0.060 N
  4. 60 N

Question 7

1 mark
An electron enters a uniform magnetic field with its velocity parallel to the field direction. Its magnetic force is
  1. parallel to its velocity.
  2. zero.
  3. opposite to its velocity.
  4. perpendicular with magnitude qvB.

Question 8

1 mark
For a simple DC motor operating well within its limits, doubling both coil current and the number of turns makes the maximum magnetic torque
  1. three times as large.
  2. twice as large.
  3. unchanged.
  4. four times as large.

Question 9

1 mark
A 0.040 m² loop is perpendicular to a uniform 0.25 T magnetic field. The magnetic flux through the loop is
  1. 0.010 Wb
  2. 0.016 Wb
  3. 0.25 Wb
  4. 6.25 Wb

Question 10

1 mark
The flux through each turn of a 200-turn coil changes by 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb in 0.15 s. The average induced emf magnitude is
  1. 0.0040 V
  2. 4.0 V
  3. 0.90 V
  4. 400 V

Question 11

1 mark
An ideal transformer changes 240 V to 24 V. If the primary current is 0.50 A, the secondary current is
  1. 0.050 A
  2. 0.50 A
  3. 5.0 A
  4. 50 A

Question 12

1 mark
For fixed transmitted power and line resistance, stepping transmission voltage upward reduces power lost in the lines because it
  1. reduces current and therefore reduces I²R heating.
  2. increases current while leaving I²R unchanged.
  3. reduces the line resistance to zero.
  4. changes alternating current into direct current.

Question 13

1 mark
Light of wavelength 600 nm passes through slits 0.50 mm apart onto a screen 2.0 m away. The fringe spacing is closest to
  1. 0.60 mm
  2. 1.2 mm
  3. 4.8 mm
  4. 2.4 mm

Question 14

1 mark
The energy of a 500 nm photon is closest to
  1. 1.3 × 10⁻²⁷ J
  2. 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
  3. 3.0 × 10⁸ J
  4. 2.5 × 10⁻¹⁶ J

Question 15

1 mark
For non-relativistic particles, a particle with smaller momentum has
  1. a shorter de Broglie wavelength.
  2. the same de Broglie wavelength for every mass.
  3. a longer de Broglie wavelength.
  4. no wave property.

Question 16

1 mark
A probe clock records a proper time of 8.0 μs while its Lorentz factor relative to Earth is 1.25. Earth observers measure
  1. 10 μs
  2. 6.4 μs
  3. 8.0 μs
  4. 1.25 μs

Question 17

1 mark
A motion sensor reports 0.04 m even when its target is at the defined zero position. This is primarily
  1. random variation only.
  2. a systematic zero error.
  3. a larger sample size.
  4. evidence that the target accelerated.

Question 18

1 mark
Repeated timings made by the same student with the same apparatus chiefly assess
  1. the accepted value without uncertainty.
  2. whether the apparatus is ethically approved.
  3. theoretical validity without data.
  4. repeatability and random spread.

Question 19

1 mark
For an object released from rest with negligible air resistance, which graph should be linear through the origin?
  1. speed versus distance fallen
  2. distance fallen versus speed squared with a non-zero intercept necessarily
  3. speed squared versus distance fallen
  4. speed versus time squared

Question 20

1 mark
A class finds brighter lamps are associated with warmer solar panels during outdoor tests. The most defensible conclusion is that
  1. the variables are associated, but the data alone do not establish that lamp brightness caused panel temperature.
  2. brighter lamps definitely caused every temperature increase.
  3. temperature cannot influence any electrical measurement.
  4. the association proves the hypothesis under all weather conditions.

Section B - Short-answer and extended-response questions

Answer all questions. Show working, justify directions and use physically precise explanations. Section B is worth 100 marks.

Question 1

10 marks
Stimulus

This question contains 2 related contexts. Context A: A 1200 kg snow groomer travels horizontally. Its engine exerts 5400 N forward while total resistance is 1800 N. It moves 30 m while these forces remain constant. Context B: An airport shuttle of mass 1600 kg follows an unbanked circular ramp of radius 32 m at 12 m s⁻¹. Tyre-road friction provides the horizontal resultant force.

Use each labelled context to answer its corresponding parts.
(a) 2 marks
Context A - Calculate the groomer's acceleration.
(b) 3 marks
Context A - Determine the net work and explain the kinetic-energy change.
(c) 2 marks
Context B - Calculate the centripetal acceleration and resultant force.
(d) 3 marks
Context B - Explain the motion if available friction falls below this value.

Response - Question 1

10 marks

Question 2

5 marks
Stimulus

A rescue beacon is launched horizontally at 18 m s⁻¹ from a cliff and lands 45 m horizontally from the launch point. Air resistance is negligible.

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Diagram Preview
18 m s⁻¹ 45 m parabolic beacon path 2.50 s cliff launch valley landing
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the time of flight.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the vertical drop and impact-speed magnitude.

Question 3

5 marks
Stimulus

A 0.40 kg instrument package moving at 14 m s⁻¹ is stopped by a helmet-liner test rig. Compare a rigid stop lasting 0.012 s with a deformable liner that stops it in 0.080 s.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 5 marks
Evaluate how the deformable liner changes the collision while conserving the same momentum change.

Question 4

5 marks
Stimulus

A 950 kg weather satellite orbits at a radius of 7.20 × 10⁶ m from Earth's centre. Use Earth mass 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg and G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N m² kg⁻².

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the gravitational field at the satellite.
(b) 3 marks
Determine the orbital speed and explain the satellite's acceleration.

Question 5

5 marks
Stimulus

A charged grain of +3.0 nC crosses uniform plates separated by 12 mm with 480 V across them. Ignore gravity during its brief transit.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the electric field and force on the grain.
(b) 3 marks
Explain the energy transfer if the grain moves through the full potential difference.

Response - Question 5

5 marks

Question 6

5 marks
Stimulus

Electrons of speed 2.4 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹ enter perpendicular to a 0.018 T magnetic field. Use electron mass 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg and charge magnitude 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ C.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the magnetic-force magnitude.
(b) 3 marks
Calculate the circular-path radius and describe the field's effect on speed.

Question 7

5 marks
Stimulus

An orchard robot uses a simple DC motor with a rectangular multi-turn coil between permanent magnets and a split-ring commutator.

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Diagram Preview
N S axle orchard drive coil DC supply continuous torque
(a) 5 marks
Explain and evaluate the features that produce continuous rotation and greater torque.

Question 8

5 marks
Stimulus

A 350-turn monitoring coil experiences a flux change per turn from +2.0 mWb to -1.0 mWb in 0.060 s.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the average induced-emf magnitude.
(b) 3 marks
Explain the sign in Faraday-Lenz law.

Question 9

5 marks
Stimulus

A wind-turbine alternator produces a sinusoidal voltage with peak value 460 V and frequency 50 Hz.

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Diagram Preview
N S 0.42 T wind coil sinusoidal output 50 Hz 0.30 m side 240 turns
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the rms voltage and period.
(b) 3 marks
Explain how uniform coil rotation produces the alternating output.

Response - Question 9

5 marks

Question 10

5 marks
Stimulus

A rural clinic uses an ideal transformer with 1800 primary turns and 90 secondary turns. The primary is connected to 240 V rms and the secondary supplies 360 W.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the secondary voltage and current.
(b) 3 marks
Determine primary current and explain why the transformer needs AC.

Question 11

5 marks
Stimulus

A regional generator sends 2.0 MW through lines of total resistance 3.0 Ω. Compare transmission at 20 kV with transmission at 200 kV, assuming the stated power enters the line.

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Diagram Preview
2.0 MW generator 20 kV primary step-up transformer 200 kV line transmission line regional load load side
(a) 5 marks
Evaluate the two transmission voltages quantitatively and explain the role of transformers.

Question 12

5 marks
Stimulus

A 520 nm laser illuminates double slits 0.30 mm apart. A screen is 1.80 m away.

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Diagram Preview
520 nm laser 520 nm 0.30 mm slits 1.80 m screen 3.12 mm fringes
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the adjacent bright-fringe spacing.
(b) 3 marks
Predict and explain the effect of using 650 nm light without changing the apparatus.

Question 13

5 marks
Stimulus

A metal has work function 2.20 eV. It is illuminated by photons of energy 3.10 eV.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the maximum photoelectron kinetic energy and stopping potential.
(b) 3 marks
Explain the effect of increasing intensity at unchanged photon energy.

Response - Question 13

5 marks

Question 14

5 marks
Stimulus

An atom emits a 486 nm photon when an electron moves from a higher state to a lower state.

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Diagram Preview
vapour atom higher state lower state ground state downward transition 486 nm photon
(a) 2 marks
Calculate the energy difference between the states.
(b) 3 marks
Explain why a low-density vapour produces discrete lines.

Question 15

5 marks
Stimulus

Muons have a proper mean lifetime of 2.20 μs. A group travels at 0.980c, for which γ ≈ 5.03, toward an observatory 8.0 km below their production altitude.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 5 marks
Evaluate, using both frames, why many muons can reach the observatory.

Question 16

5 marks
Stimulus

Students vary the applied force on the same dynamics cart and measure acceleration. Their force-acceleration data are (1.0 N, 0.42 m s⁻²), (2.0 N, 0.83 m s⁻²), (3.0 N, 1.25 m s⁻²) and (4.0 N, 1.67 m s⁻²).

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Graph Preview
0123421.510.50applied force (N)acceleration (m s⁻²)
(a) 2 marks
State an aim and identify the variables.
(b) 3 marks
Interpret the gradient and assess the data.

Question 17

5 marks
Stimulus

A class measures the central diffraction width for laser light passing through six different slit widths. Students must align a laser across the room before each run.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 2 marks
Write a directional hypothesis and identify a key control.
(b) 3 marks
Specify safe, valid and repeatable improvements.

Response - Question 17

5 marks

Question 18

5 marks
Stimulus

A balance measures magnetic force on a 0.080 m wire segment at currents 0.5, 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0 A. The force readings are 3.1, 6.0, 9.2 and 12.1 mN.

Use the supplied scenario and structured visual to answer all parts.
Graph Preview
00.511.5212.5107.552.50current (A)magnetic force (mN)
(a) 2 marks
Analyse the force-current relationship.
(b) 3 marks
Use the gradient to estimate field strength and evaluate one limitation.

Question 19

5 marks
Stimulus

A poster claims, 'Increasing launch angle always increases projectile range.' The team tested 20°, 30°, 40° and 50° using a spring launcher, but launch speed fell at larger angles because the release latch rubbed against its guide.

Use the supplied scenario to answer all parts.
(a) 5 marks
Evaluate the claim, evidence and communication, then propose a defensible revision.

VCE is administered by the Victorian Curriculum and Assessment Authority (VCAA). Skill Align is an independent publisher and is not affiliated with, authorised by, sponsored by, approved by or endorsed by VCAA or the Victorian Government.

Copyright (c) 2026 Skill Align. Free for personal, non-commercial online viewing at https://skillalign.au. You may share the Skill Align page link. Except as permitted by law or with Skill Align's prior written permission, the pack itself must not be resold, copied, redistributed, republished, automatically extracted, or uploaded to a question bank. All questions, scenarios, datasets, visuals, answers and marking guidance are original Skill Align content.

Worked Solutions And Marking Guide

Section A Question 1

Answer: 3600 N

The required resultant is 1800 N, so traction must be 1800 N plus the 1800 N resistance.

Section A Question 2

Answer: 3.2 m s⁻²

Using a = v²/r gives 64/20 = 3.2 m s⁻².

Section A Question 3

Answer: at the same time but farther from the ledge.

Their vertical motions are identical; horizontal speed changes range but not fall time.

Section A Question 4

Answer: 4.5 N s

The momentum change is 0.15(-10 - 20) = -4.5 kg m s⁻¹, with magnitude 4.5 N s.

Section A Question 5

Answer: g/4

The inverse-square relationship gives g(1/2)² = g/4.

Section A Question 6

Answer: 0.060 N

F = qE = 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ × 3.0 × 10⁴ = 0.060 N.

Section A Question 7

Answer: zero.

For parallel velocity and field, the magnetic-force factor sin 0° is zero.

Section A Question 8

Answer: four times as large.

Motor torque is proportional to both current and number of turns.

Section A Question 9

Answer: 0.010 Wb

With the field perpendicular to the loop area, Φ = BA = 0.25 × 0.040 = 0.010 Wb.

Section A Question 10

Answer: 4.0 V

|ε| = N|ΔΦ/Δt| = 200 × 0.0030/0.15 = 4.0 V.

Section A Question 11

Answer: 5.0 A

Conservation of power gives 240 × 0.50 = 24 × I₂, so I₂ = 5.0 A.

Section A Question 12

Answer: reduces current and therefore reduces I²R heating.

At fixed power, higher voltage means lower current, which reduces resistive heating.

Section A Question 13

Answer: 2.4 mm

Δx = λL/d = 600 × 10⁻⁹ × 2.0/(0.50 × 10⁻³) = 2.4 mm.

Section A Question 14

Answer: 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

E = hc/λ ≈ 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ × 3.00 × 10⁸/(500 × 10⁻⁹) = 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁹ J.

Section A Question 15

Answer: a longer de Broglie wavelength.

The de Broglie relation λ = h/p makes wavelength inversely proportional to momentum.

Section A Question 16

Answer: 10 μs

Time dilation gives t = γt₀ = 1.25 × 8.0 μs = 10 μs.

Section A Question 17

Answer: a systematic zero error.

A persistent offset shifts measurements in the same direction.

Section A Question 18

Answer: repeatability and random spread.

Same-method repeats reveal the precision and random variation of that setup.

Section A Question 19

Answer: speed squared versus distance fallen

From v² = 2gs, v² plotted against s is linear through the origin.

Section A Question 20

Answer: the variables are associated, but the data alone do not establish that lamp brightness caused panel temperature.

Uncontrolled irradiance and weather prevent a causal conclusion from correlation alone.

Section B Question 1

(a) Calculates the net force as 3600 N forward. Uses a = Fnet/m to obtain 3.0 m s⁻² forward.

Calculates the net force as 3600 N forward. Uses a = Fnet/m to obtain 3.0 m s⁻² forward.

(b) Calculates Wnet = 3600 × 30 = 1.08 × 10⁵ J. States the work-energy theorem: net work equals the change in kinetic energy. Concludes that the groomer's kinetic energy increases by 1.08 × 10⁵ J.

Calculates Wnet = 3600 × 30 = 1.08 × 10⁵ J. States the work-energy theorem: net work equals the change in kinetic energy. Concludes that the groomer's kinetic energy increases by 1.08 × 10⁵ J.

(c) Calculates a = 12²/32 = 4.5 m s⁻². Calculates Fnet = 1600 × 4.5 = 7.2 × 10³ N toward the centre.

Calculates a = 12²/32 = 4.5 m s⁻². Calculates Fnet = 1600 × 4.5 = 7.2 × 10³ N toward the centre.

(d) Identifies friction as the inward force required for circular motion. States that insufficient inward force produces a larger turning radius than intended. Predicts that the shuttle initially moves outward relative to the planned circular path, tangentially in the ground frame.

Identifies friction as the inward force required for circular motion. States that insufficient inward force produces a larger turning radius than intended. Predicts that the shuttle initially moves outward relative to the planned circular path, tangentially in the ground frame.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the net force as 3600 N forward.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses a = Fnet/m to obtain 3.0 m s⁻² forward.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates Wnet = 3600 × 30 = 1.08 × 10⁵ J.

Part b (1 mark)

States the work-energy theorem: net work equals the change in kinetic energy.

Part b (1 mark)

Concludes that the groomer's kinetic energy increases by 1.08 × 10⁵ J.

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates a = 12²/32 = 4.5 m s⁻².

Part c (1 mark)

Calculates Fnet = 1600 × 4.5 = 7.2 × 10³ N toward the centre.

Part d (1 mark)

Identifies friction as the inward force required for circular motion.

Part d (1 mark)

States that insufficient inward force produces a larger turning radius than intended.

Part d (1 mark)

Predicts that the shuttle initially moves outward relative to the planned circular path, tangentially in the ground frame.

Section B Question 2

(a) Uses horizontal motion t = x/vx. Obtains t = 45/18 = 2.50 s.

Uses horizontal motion t = x/vx. Obtains t = 45/18 = 2.50 s.

(b) Calculates the drop as 0.5 × 9.8 × 2.50² = 30.6 m. Calculates vertical impact speed as 9.8 × 2.50 = 24.5 m s⁻¹ downward. Combines components to obtain impact speed approximately 30.4 m s⁻¹.

Calculates the drop as 0.5 × 9.8 × 2.50² = 30.6 m. Calculates vertical impact speed as 9.8 × 2.50 = 24.5 m s⁻¹ downward. Combines components to obtain impact speed approximately 30.4 m s⁻¹.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses horizontal motion t = x/vx.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains t = 45/18 = 2.50 s.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates the drop as 0.5 × 9.8 × 2.50² = 30.6 m.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates vertical impact speed as 9.8 × 2.50 = 24.5 m s⁻¹ downward.

Part b (1 mark)

Combines components to obtain impact speed approximately 30.4 m s⁻¹.

Section B Question 3

(a) Calculates the momentum-change magnitude as 0.40 × 14 = 5.6 N s. Calculates the rigid-stop average force as about 467 N. Calculates the liner average force as 70 N. Explains that the longer stopping time lowers average force for the same impulse. Notes that energy transferred to deformation, heat and sound means the package-liner collision is not elastic.

Calculates the momentum-change magnitude as 0.40 × 14 = 5.6 N s. Calculates the rigid-stop average force as about 467 N. Calculates the liner average force as 70 N. Explains that the longer stopping time lowers average force for the same impulse. Notes that energy transferred to deformation, heat and sound means the package-liner collision is not elastic.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the momentum-change magnitude as 0.40 × 14 = 5.6 N s.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the rigid-stop average force as about 467 N.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the liner average force as 70 N.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that the longer stopping time lowers average force for the same impulse.

Part a (1 mark)

Notes that energy transferred to deformation, heat and sound means the package-liner collision is not elastic.

Section B Question 4

(a) Uses g = GM/r². Obtains g ≈ 7.68 N kg⁻¹ directed toward Earth.

Uses g = GM/r². Obtains g ≈ 7.68 N kg⁻¹ directed toward Earth.

(b) Uses v = √(GM/r) to obtain approximately 7.44 × 10³ m s⁻¹. States that gravity supplies the centripetal resultant force. Explains that acceleration is non-zero because velocity direction changes even when speed is constant.

Uses v = √(GM/r) to obtain approximately 7.44 × 10³ m s⁻¹. States that gravity supplies the centripetal resultant force. Explains that acceleration is non-zero because velocity direction changes even when speed is constant.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses g = GM/r².

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains g ≈ 7.68 N kg⁻¹ directed toward Earth.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses v = √(GM/r) to obtain approximately 7.44 × 10³ m s⁻¹.

Part b (1 mark)

States that gravity supplies the centripetal resultant force.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that acceleration is non-zero because velocity direction changes even when speed is constant.

Section B Question 5

(a) Calculates E = V/d = 480/0.012 = 4.0 × 10⁴ V m⁻¹. Calculates F = qE = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ N toward the negative plate.

Calculates E = V/d = 480/0.012 = 4.0 × 10⁴ V m⁻¹. Calculates F = qE = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ N toward the negative plate.

(b) Uses W = qV to obtain 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J. States that electric potential energy decreases for motion along the force on a positive charge. States that kinetic energy increases by the same amount if other energy transfers are negligible.

Uses W = qV to obtain 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J. States that electric potential energy decreases for motion along the force on a positive charge. States that kinetic energy increases by the same amount if other energy transfers are negligible.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates E = V/d = 480/0.012 = 4.0 × 10⁴ V m⁻¹.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates F = qE = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ N toward the negative plate.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses W = qV to obtain 1.44 × 10⁻⁶ J.

Part b (1 mark)

States that electric potential energy decreases for motion along the force on a positive charge.

Part b (1 mark)

States that kinetic energy increases by the same amount if other energy transfers are negligible.

Section B Question 6

(a) Uses F = qvB for perpendicular velocity and field. Obtains F = 6.91 × 10⁻¹⁵ N.

Uses F = qvB for perpendicular velocity and field. Obtains F = 6.91 × 10⁻¹⁵ N.

(b) Uses r = mv/(qB). Obtains r ≈ 7.59 × 10⁻⁴ m. Explains that the perpendicular magnetic force changes direction but does no work, so speed remains constant.

Uses r = mv/(qB). Obtains r ≈ 7.59 × 10⁻⁴ m. Explains that the perpendicular magnetic force changes direction but does no work, so speed remains constant.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses F = qvB for perpendicular velocity and field.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains F = 6.91 × 10⁻¹⁵ N.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses r = mv/(qB).

Part b (1 mark)

Obtains r ≈ 7.59 × 10⁻⁴ m.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that the perpendicular magnetic force changes direction but does no work, so speed remains constant.

Section B Question 7

(a) Identifies opposite magnetic forces on the two current-carrying sides of the coil. Explains that the force pair creates a torque about the axle. Explains that the split-ring commutator reverses coil current every half-turn so torque continues in the same rotational sense. States that increasing current, field strength or turn count increases torque within operating limits. Notes that added resistance or heating can limit current, so a higher supply voltage does not guarantee proportional torque indefinitely.

Identifies opposite magnetic forces on the two current-carrying sides of the coil. Explains that the force pair creates a torque about the axle. Explains that the split-ring commutator reverses coil current every half-turn so torque continues in the same rotational sense. States that increasing current, field strength or turn count increases torque within operating limits. Notes that added resistance or heating can limit current, so a higher supply voltage does not guarantee proportional torque indefinitely.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies opposite magnetic forces on the two current-carrying sides of the coil.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that the force pair creates a torque about the axle.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that the split-ring commutator reverses coil current every half-turn so torque continues in the same rotational sense.

Part a (1 mark)

States that increasing current, field strength or turn count increases torque within operating limits.

Part a (1 mark)

Notes that added resistance or heating can limit current, so a higher supply voltage does not guarantee proportional torque indefinitely.

Section B Question 8

(a) Calculates the flux-change magnitude per turn as 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb. Calculates |ε| = 350 × 0.0030/0.060 = 17.5 V.

Calculates the flux-change magnitude per turn as 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb. Calculates |ε| = 350 × 0.0030/0.060 = 17.5 V.

(b) States that changing flux induces an emf/current. Explains that the induced magnetic effect opposes the flux change rather than opposing the existing flux necessarily. Connects this opposition to energy conservation.

States that changing flux induces an emf/current. Explains that the induced magnetic effect opposes the flux change rather than opposing the existing flux necessarily. Connects this opposition to energy conservation.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the flux-change magnitude per turn as 3.0 × 10⁻³ Wb.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates |ε| = 350 × 0.0030/0.060 = 17.5 V.

Part b (1 mark)

States that changing flux induces an emf/current.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that the induced magnetic effect opposes the flux change rather than opposing the existing flux necessarily.

Part b (1 mark)

Connects this opposition to energy conservation.

Section B Question 9

(a) Calculates Vrms = 460/√2 ≈ 325 V. Calculates T = 1/f = 0.020 s.

Calculates Vrms = 460/√2 ≈ 325 V. Calculates T = 1/f = 0.020 s.

(b) States that rotation changes the magnetic flux through the coil. Links induced emf to the rate of change of flux. Explains that slip rings preserve connection while the emf reverses every half-turn.

States that rotation changes the magnetic flux through the coil. Links induced emf to the rate of change of flux. Explains that slip rings preserve connection while the emf reverses every half-turn.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates Vrms = 460/√2 ≈ 325 V.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates T = 1/f = 0.020 s.

Part b (1 mark)

States that rotation changes the magnetic flux through the coil.

Part b (1 mark)

Links induced emf to the rate of change of flux.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that slip rings preserve connection while the emf reverses every half-turn.

Section B Question 10

(a) Uses V₂/V₁ = N₂/N₁ to obtain V₂ = 12 V rms. Uses P = VI to obtain I₂ = 360/12 = 30 A.

Uses V₂/V₁ = N₂/N₁ to obtain V₂ = 12 V rms. Uses P = VI to obtain I₂ = 360/12 = 30 A.

(b) Uses ideal power equality to obtain I₁ = 360/240 = 1.5 A. States that AC produces changing magnetic flux in the core. Explains that a steady DC input would not provide continuing flux change and induced secondary emf.

Uses ideal power equality to obtain I₁ = 360/240 = 1.5 A. States that AC produces changing magnetic flux in the core. Explains that a steady DC input would not provide continuing flux change and induced secondary emf.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses V₂/V₁ = N₂/N₁ to obtain V₂ = 12 V rms.

Part a (1 mark)

Uses P = VI to obtain I₂ = 360/12 = 30 A.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses ideal power equality to obtain I₁ = 360/240 = 1.5 A.

Part b (1 mark)

States that AC produces changing magnetic flux in the core.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that a steady DC input would not provide continuing flux change and induced secondary emf.

Section B Question 11

(a) Calculates currents of 100 A at 20 kV and 10 A at 200 kV. Calculates line losses of 30 kW and 0.30 kW respectively using I²R. Concludes that the tenfold voltage increase reduces line loss by a factor of 100 for fixed resistance and input power. Explains that a step-up transformer enables high-voltage low-current transmission. Explains that local step-down transformers restore safer useful distribution voltages, with real transformer losses acknowledged.

Calculates currents of 100 A at 20 kV and 10 A at 200 kV. Calculates line losses of 30 kW and 0.30 kW respectively using I²R. Concludes that the tenfold voltage increase reduces line loss by a factor of 100 for fixed resistance and input power. Explains that a step-up transformer enables high-voltage low-current transmission. Explains that local step-down transformers restore safer useful distribution voltages, with real transformer losses acknowledged.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates currents of 100 A at 20 kV and 10 A at 200 kV.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates line losses of 30 kW and 0.30 kW respectively using I²R.

Part a (1 mark)

Concludes that the tenfold voltage increase reduces line loss by a factor of 100 for fixed resistance and input power.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that a step-up transformer enables high-voltage low-current transmission.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that local step-down transformers restore safer useful distribution voltages, with real transformer losses acknowledged.

Section B Question 12

(a) Uses Δx = λL/d. Obtains Δx = 3.12 × 10⁻³ m or 3.12 mm.

Uses Δx = λL/d. Obtains Δx = 3.12 × 10⁻³ m or 3.12 mm.

(b) States that the fringe spacing increases. Uses proportionality Δx ∝ λ to obtain a factor 650/520 = 1.25. Predicts a new spacing of approximately 3.90 mm.

States that the fringe spacing increases. Uses proportionality Δx ∝ λ to obtain a factor 650/520 = 1.25. Predicts a new spacing of approximately 3.90 mm.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses Δx = λL/d.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains Δx = 3.12 × 10⁻³ m or 3.12 mm.

Part b (1 mark)

States that the fringe spacing increases.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses proportionality Δx ∝ λ to obtain a factor 650/520 = 1.25.

Part b (1 mark)

Predicts a new spacing of approximately 3.90 mm.

Section B Question 13

(a) Calculates Ek,max = 3.10 - 2.20 = 0.90 eV. Obtains a stopping-potential magnitude of 0.90 V.

Calculates Ek,max = 3.10 - 2.20 = 0.90 eV. Obtains a stopping-potential magnitude of 0.90 V.

(b) States that photon energy and therefore maximum kinetic energy remain unchanged. States that more photons arrive per unit time. Predicts a greater emission rate and photocurrent when other conditions are unchanged.

States that photon energy and therefore maximum kinetic energy remain unchanged. States that more photons arrive per unit time. Predicts a greater emission rate and photocurrent when other conditions are unchanged.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates Ek,max = 3.10 - 2.20 = 0.90 eV.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains a stopping-potential magnitude of 0.90 V.

Part b (1 mark)

States that photon energy and therefore maximum kinetic energy remain unchanged.

Part b (1 mark)

States that more photons arrive per unit time.

Part b (1 mark)

Predicts a greater emission rate and photocurrent when other conditions are unchanged.

Section B Question 14

(a) Uses ΔE = hc/λ. Obtains ΔE ≈ 4.09 × 10⁻¹⁹ J or 2.55 eV.

Uses ΔE = hc/λ. Obtains ΔE ≈ 4.09 × 10⁻¹⁹ J or 2.55 eV.

(b) States that bound electrons occupy quantised energy states. States that a photon energy equals the difference between an allowed pair of states. Explains that only particular energy differences, and therefore wavelengths, are emitted.

States that bound electrons occupy quantised energy states. States that a photon energy equals the difference between an allowed pair of states. Explains that only particular energy differences, and therefore wavelengths, are emitted.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Uses ΔE = hc/λ.

Part a (1 mark)

Obtains ΔE ≈ 4.09 × 10⁻¹⁹ J or 2.55 eV.

Part b (1 mark)

States that bound electrons occupy quantised energy states.

Part b (1 mark)

States that a photon energy equals the difference between an allowed pair of states.

Part b (1 mark)

Explains that only particular energy differences, and therefore wavelengths, are emitted.

Section B Question 15

(a) Calculates the Earth-frame dilated lifetime as about 11.1 μs. Calculates an Earth-frame mean travel distance of about 3.25 km and recognises survival is probabilistic rather than guaranteed. Calculates the 8.0 km atmospheric distance in the muon frame as about 1.59 km. Explains that time dilation in Earth's frame and length contraction in the muon frame are consistent descriptions of the same events. Avoids adding the relativistic effects twice or claiming the muons experience a dilated proper lifetime.

Calculates the Earth-frame dilated lifetime as about 11.1 μs. Calculates an Earth-frame mean travel distance of about 3.25 km and recognises survival is probabilistic rather than guaranteed. Calculates the 8.0 km atmospheric distance in the muon frame as about 1.59 km. Explains that time dilation in Earth's frame and length contraction in the muon frame are consistent descriptions of the same events. Avoids adding the relativistic effects twice or claiming the muons experience a dilated proper lifetime.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the Earth-frame dilated lifetime as about 11.1 μs.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates an Earth-frame mean travel distance of about 3.25 km and recognises survival is probabilistic rather than guaranteed.

Part a (1 mark)

Calculates the 8.0 km atmospheric distance in the muon frame as about 1.59 km.

Part a (1 mark)

Explains that time dilation in Earth's frame and length contraction in the muon frame are consistent descriptions of the same events.

Part a (1 mark)

Avoids adding the relativistic effects twice or claiming the muons experience a dilated proper lifetime.

Section B Question 16

(a) States an aim to determine the relationship between applied force and acceleration for the cart. Identifies force as continuous independent variable, acceleration as dependent variable, and cart mass as controlled.

States an aim to determine the relationship between applied force and acceleration for the cart. Identifies force as continuous independent variable, acceleration as dependent variable, and cart mass as controlled.

(b) Finds a gradient close to 0.42 (m s⁻²) N⁻¹. Uses gradient = 1/m to estimate mass about 2.4 kg. Notes the near-linear pattern and requests uncertainty/repeats before judging agreement precisely.

Finds a gradient close to 0.42 (m s⁻²) N⁻¹. Uses gradient = 1/m to estimate mass about 2.4 kg. Notes the near-linear pattern and requests uncertainty/repeats before judging agreement precisely.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

States an aim to determine the relationship between applied force and acceleration for the cart.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies force as continuous independent variable, acceleration as dependent variable, and cart mass as controlled.

Part b (1 mark)

Finds a gradient close to 0.42 (m s⁻²) N⁻¹.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses gradient = 1/m to estimate mass about 2.4 kg.

Part b (1 mark)

Notes the near-linear pattern and requests uncertainty/repeats before judging agreement precisely.

Section B Question 17

(a) Predicts that decreasing slit width will increase diffraction spread or central maximum width. Identifies wavelength and screen distance as controlled variables.

Predicts that decreasing slit width will increase diffraction spread or central maximum width. Identifies wavelength and screen distance as controlled variables.

(b) Requires the beam path to be below or above eye level with controlled access and no direct viewing. Uses several continuous slit widths with repeated width measurements. Keeps alignment and screen distance fixed and records uncertainty in fringe-width measurement.

Requires the beam path to be below or above eye level with controlled access and no direct viewing. Uses several continuous slit widths with repeated width measurements. Keeps alignment and screen distance fixed and records uncertainty in fringe-width measurement.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Predicts that decreasing slit width will increase diffraction spread or central maximum width.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies wavelength and screen distance as controlled variables.

Part b (1 mark)

Requires the beam path to be below or above eye level with controlled access and no direct viewing.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses several continuous slit widths with repeated width measurements.

Part b (1 mark)

Keeps alignment and screen distance fixed and records uncertainty in fringe-width measurement.

Section B Question 18

(a) Identifies an approximately linear proportional relationship. Estimates gradient approximately 6.0 mN A⁻¹.

Identifies an approximately linear proportional relationship. Estimates gradient approximately 6.0 mN A⁻¹.

(b) Uses gradient = lB for a perpendicular single wire. Calculates B ≈ 0.0060/0.080 = 0.075 T. Notes a limitation such as field non-uniformity, balance resolution or unreported repeats/uncertainty.

Uses gradient = lB for a perpendicular single wire. Calculates B ≈ 0.0060/0.080 = 0.075 T. Notes a limitation such as field non-uniformity, balance resolution or unreported repeats/uncertainty.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies an approximately linear proportional relationship.

Part a (1 mark)

Estimates gradient approximately 6.0 mN A⁻¹.

Part b (1 mark)

Uses gradient = lB for a perpendicular single wire.

Part b (1 mark)

Calculates B ≈ 0.0060/0.080 = 0.075 T.

Part b (1 mark)

Notes a limitation such as field non-uniformity, balance resolution or unreported repeats/uncertainty.

Section B Question 19

(a) Identifies that the absolute word 'always' exceeds the tested angle range and assumptions. Identifies launch speed as a confounding variable because it changed with angle. Requires measured launch speed, repeats and uncertainty at each angle while controlling launch height and apparatus. States that any conclusion must be restricted to the tested launcher conditions and supported range pattern. Proposes clear reporting of raw/processed data, uncertainty bars, the latch limitation and a revised conditional claim rather than causal overstatement.

Identifies that the absolute word 'always' exceeds the tested angle range and assumptions. Identifies launch speed as a confounding variable because it changed with angle. Requires measured launch speed, repeats and uncertainty at each angle while controlling launch height and apparatus. States that any conclusion must be restricted to the tested launcher conditions and supported range pattern. Proposes clear reporting of raw/processed data, uncertainty bars, the latch limitation and a revised conditional claim rather than causal overstatement.

Detailed marking criteria

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies that the absolute word 'always' exceeds the tested angle range and assumptions.

Part a (1 mark)

Identifies launch speed as a confounding variable because it changed with angle.

Part a (1 mark)

Requires measured launch speed, repeats and uncertainty at each angle while controlling launch height and apparatus.

Part a (1 mark)

States that any conclusion must be restricted to the tested launcher conditions and supported range pattern.

Part a (1 mark)

Proposes clear reporting of raw/processed data, uncertainty bars, the latch limitation and a revised conditional claim rather than causal overstatement.

Diagnostic Checklist

TopicQuestionsMarksMarks LostAction
Motion in two dimensions A1, A2, A3, A4, B1, B2, B3 24 ___ Review Newton's laws, circular and projectile motion, momentum, impulse, work and energy.
Fields and non-contact motion A5, A6, A7, A8, B4, B5, B6, B7 24 ___ Review gravitational, electric and magnetic fields, satellites, motors and particle accelerators.
Electricity generation and transmission A9, A10, A11, A12, B8, B9, B10, B11 24 ___ Review flux, induction, generators, AC, transformers and transmission losses.
Changing models of light and matter A13, A14, A15, A16, B12, B13, B14, B15 24 ___ Review waves, photons, matter waves, spectra, relativity and mass-energy.
Scientific inquiry A17, A18, A19, A20, B16, B17, B18, B19 24 ___ Review experimental design, uncertainty, linearisation, evidence, safety and communication.

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Question and Answer Book questions (120 marks)

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